UPSC CSE Prelims 2024 Detailed Solution

 1. How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023? 

A. One 
B. Two 
C. Three 
D. Four 

Ans: D

Subject: Polity

Solution: Delimitation Commissions have been constituted 4 times by the Government of India till December 2023.

While some controversy has been raised about this question by the issues of the recent delimitation exercise in J&K. Luckily for those giving the exam, 5 times was not an option in this question.

Source: Indian Polity By M Laxmikanth 7th Edition (Chapter 71)

2. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages? 

1. Konkani 
2. Manipuri 
3. Nepali 
4. Maithili 

Select the correct answer using the code given below : 

A. 1, 2 and 3 
B. 1, 2 and 4 
C. 1, 3 and 4 
D. 2, 3 and 4 

Ans: A

Subject: Polity

Solution: The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali. 

Maithili language was added later by 92nd Amendment Act 2003.

Source: Indian Polity By M Laxmikant 7th Edition (Chapter 73)

3. Consider the following pairs :

How many of the above are correctly matched? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two 
3. Only three 
4. All four 

Ans: B

Subject: Modern India

Solution: 

Congress for Democracy - Jagjivan Ram: This is a correct match. Jagjivan Ram was a Dalit leader who served as a minister in various Indian governments. He founded the Congress for Democracy after leaving the Indian National Congress.

The Swatantra Party was a significant player in India's political landscape, but it existed from 1959 to 1974 and is no longer active in modern India. Founded in 1959 by C. Rajagopalachari (Rajaji), a prominent figure who previously served as Governor-General of India.

Source: Class 12th NCERT Politics in India Since Independence

4. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India? 

1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution. 

2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. 

3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution. 

Select the answer using the code given below : 

A. 1 and 2 only 
B. 2 and 3 only 
C. 1 and 3 only 
D. 1, 2 and 3 

Ans: D

Subject: Polity

Solution: 

Part IX A (Municipalities): This part was inserted into the Constitution to empower municipalities with specific powers and functions to ensure effective local governance. It includes provisions regarding the constitution of municipalities, their powers to levy taxes, their relationship with state governments, and measures to strengthen local self-government.

Part XVIII (Emergency Provisions): This part of the Constitution deals with situations of emergency that may arise due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. It outlines the circumstances under which a national emergency, state emergency, or financial emergency can be declared, the effects of such emergencies on fundamental rights, and the procedure for invoking and revoking these emergency provisions.

Part XX (Amendment of the Constitution): Part XX outlines the procedures and methods for amending various provisions of the Constitution. It specifies the types of amendments (simple majority, special majority, and special majority with the consent of states), the role of Parliament and state legislatures in the amendment process, and the provisions that are amendable and those that require ratification by states.

Source: Indian Polity By M Laxmikant (Multiple Chapters)

5. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India? 

A. Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
B. Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
C. Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List. 
D. Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List. 

Ans: C

Subject: Polity

Solution: 

Based on the distribution of powers:

• Inter-State trade and commerce is a Union subject (List I).
• Inter-State migration is not specifically mentioned in any list but typically addressed through cooperation.
• Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject (List I).
• Corporation tax is a Union subject (List I).

Source: https://www.orfonline.org/research/the-covid-19-challenge-to-indian-federalism 

6. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India places the Right to Privacy? 

A. Article 15 
B. Article 16 
C. Article 19 
D. Article 21 

Ans: D

Subject: Polity

Solution:

Source: Indian Polity By M Laxmikant 7th Edition (Chapter 15)

Source: Para 5 of the Justice Puttaswamy judgement. https://indiankanoon.org/doc/127517806/

7. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?

1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee. 
2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs. 
3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

A. 1, 2 and 3 
B. 1 and 2 only 
C. 2 and 3 only 
D. 1 and 3 only 

Ans: D

Subject: Current Affairs

Solution: 

Statement 1: Correct. The CDS is the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee.

Statement 2: Incorrect. The CDS does not exercise direct military command over the three Service Chiefs.

Statement 3: Correct. The CDS is the Principal Military Advisor to the Defence Minister on all tri-service matters.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1597425 

8. Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called : 

A. Operation Sankalp 
B. Operation Maitri 
C. Operation Sadbhavana 
D. Operation Madad 

Ans: C

Subject: Current Affairs

Solution: 

The operation undertaken by the Indian Army towards the upliftment of the local population in remote areas, addressing their basic needs, is known as Operation Sadbhavana.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1895974

9. The longest border between any two countries in the world is between : 

A. Canada and the United States of America 
B. Chile and Argentina 
C. China and India 
D. Kazakhstan and Russian Federation 

Ans: A

Subject: Geography

Solution: 

Border between Canada and the United States:

• The border between Canada and the United States is the longest international border in the world. It stretches for approximately 8,891 kilometers (5,525 miles) along the 49th parallel from the Pacific Ocean in the west to the Atlantic Ocean in the east.

Why the other options are incorrect:

• Chile and Argentina: Although Chile and Argentina share a long border in South America, it is not as long as the Canada-US border. It measures approximately 5,150 kilometers (3,200 miles).
• China and India: The border between China and India is quite long and is disputed in certain areas, but it does not exceed the length of the Canada-US border. It spans approximately 3,488 kilometers (2,167 miles).
• Kazakhstan and Russian Federation: The border between Kazakhstan and Russia is significant, measuring around 7,591 kilometers (4,714 miles). While this is a long border, it is still shorter than the Canada-US border.

Source:

https://www.thehindu.com/data/data-sharp-rise-in-indians-illegally-crossing-us-northern-border-from-canada/article67634735.ece 

10. Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct? 

1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee. 
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha. 
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below : 

A. 1 and 2 only 
B. 2 and 3 only 
C. 1 and 3 only 
D. 1, 2 and 3 

Ans: C

Subject: Polity

Solution: 

Statement 1 is correct because the Ethics Committee was initially constituted as an ad-hoc committee.

Statement 2 is incorrect because it is not specified that only members of the Lok Sabha can raise complaints regarding unethical conduct of fellow members.

Statement 3 is correct because the Ethics Committee avoids taking up matters that are sub-judice.

Source: Indian Polity By M.Laxmikant 7th Edition (Chapter 23) 

News: https://indianexpress.com/article/political-pulse/mahua-moitra-nishikant-dubey-parliament-ethics-committee-8987781/

11. Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over ? 

A. C. Rajagopalachari 
B. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 
C. T.T. Krishnamachari 
D. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha 

Ans: D

Subject: Polity

Solution: 

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was appointed as the first provisional President of the Constituent Assembly of India on December 9, 1946. He presided over the inaugural session of the Constituent Assembly, which was held on December 9, 1946.

Dr. Rajendra Prasad later succeeded Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha as the President of the Constituent Assembly on December 11, 1946. Dr. Rajendra Prasad continued to serve as the President of the Constituent Assembly until the adoption of the Constitution of India on January 24, 1950.

Source: Indian Polity By M Laxmikant 7th Edition (Chapter 2)

12. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislatures.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: A (while wording could have been better, statement 1 is correct)

Subject: Modern India

Solution: 

Government of India Act, 1935: This legislation was a significant constitutional reform passed by the British Parliament. It proposed a federal structure for India, which included both British Indian provinces and princely states. However, due to various reasons including opposition from princely states and other complexities, the federation envisioned by the act did not come into existence fully.

Defence and Foreign Affairs: These matters were crucial and were not devolved to Indian control under the Government of India Act, 1935. They remained in the hands of the British authorities and the Viceroy acting on behalf of the Crown.

Source: Spectrum - Unit 9 - India under British Rule: Governance and other Aspects. Also covered in Classes Notes.

13. Which one of the following is a work attributed to the playwright Bhasa?

A. Kavyalankara
B. Natyashastra 
C. Madhyama-vyayoga 
D. Mahabhashya 

Ans: C

Subject: Ancient India

Solution: 

Bhasa is an ancient Indian playwright known for his contributions to Sanskrit drama. Among the options provided:

Madhyama-vyayoga"Madhyama-vyayoga" (also known as "Middle One") is a play attributed to Bhasa. It is one of the thirteen plays attributed to him that have been preserved. Bhasa's plays are noted for their simple language, dramatic impact, and portrayal of realistic characters.

Source: Upinder Singh

14. Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on : 

A. Prajnaparamita Sutra 
B. Visuddhimagga 
C. Sarvastivada Vinaya 
D. Lalitavistara 

Ans: C

Subject: Ancient India

Solution: 

The Sarvastivada Vinaya is a collection of texts that form the monastic rules and discipline for monks in the Sarvastivada school of Buddhism. It is associated with Sanghabhuti.

Source: Upinder Singh

15. Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO : 

1. Shantiniketan 
2. Rani-ki-Vav 
3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas 
4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya 

How many of the above properties were included in 2023 ? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two 
3. Only three 
4. All four 

Ans: B

Subject: Current Affairs

Solution: 

Shantiniketan

Shantiniketan, located in West Bengal, India, is famous for its association with Rabindranath Tagore and Visva-Bharati University. It was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2023.

Rani-ki-Vav

Rani-ki-Vav, also known as the Queen's Stepwell, is located in Patan, Gujarat, India. It was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2014 for its exceptional design and intricate artwork.

Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas

The Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas refer to the temples built by the Hoysala Empire in Karnataka, India. This property was included in the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2023, recognizing its architectural significance and cultural value.

Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya

The Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya, Bihar, India, is one of the most important Buddhist pilgrimage sites. It was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2002, acknowledging its historical and spiritual importance as the place where Buddha attained enlightenment.

Source: https://www.unesco.org/en/world-heritage/committee-2023

16. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of: 

1. Addition 
2. Variation 
3. Repeal 

Select the correct answer using the code given below : 

A. 1 and 2 only 
B. 2 and 3 only 
C. 1 and 3 only 
D. 1, 2 and 3 

Ans: D

 Subject: Polity

Solution: 

Article 368 of the Indian Constitution:

1. Power to Amend the Constitution:
   • Article 368 grants the exclusive power to amend the Constitution of India to the Parliament. It specifies that the Parliament may amend by way of addition, variation, or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in the article.
2. Types of Amendments:
   • Amendments to the Constitution can be of several types, ranging from minor changes to fundamental alterations in the structure or provisions of the Constitution. Article 368 empowers Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution, including the fundamental rights and other provisions.

Source: Direct : Bare Act - Indian Constitution

Article 368: https://indiankanoon.org/doc/594125/

17. Consider the following countries : 

1. Italy 
2. Japan 
3. Nigeria 
4. South Korea 
5. South Africa 

Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population of declining population ? 

1. 1, 2 and 4 
2. 1, 3 and 5 
3. 2 and 4 only 
4. 3 and 5 only 
   

Ans: A

Subject: Current Affairs

Solution: 

Italy: Italy has been facing a declining birth rate and an aging population for several decades. This demographic trend has significant implications for its economy and social welfare systems.

Japan: Japan is known for its rapidly aging population and low birth rate. The combination of low fertility rates and increasing life expectancy has led to concerns about the sustainability of its workforce and economic growth.

South Korea: South Korea is also experiencing a low birth rate and an aging population. Efforts to encourage higher birth rates have been challenging, leading to discussions about potential demographic and economic consequences.

Source: 

https://www.euronews.com/my-europe/2024/05/10/italys-falling-birth-rate-is-a-crisis-thats-only-getting-worse,

https://eastasiaforum.org/2024/03/05/combating-depopulation-in-japan/,

https://www.aljazeera.com/news/2024/2/28/fears-for-future-as-south-koreas-fertility-rate-drops-again

18. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills. 
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. 
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it. 
4. Amendment to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below : 

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 1, 2 and 3 
4. 1, 3 and 4 

Ans: C

Subject: Polity

Solution: 

Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.

• Correct. Article 109 of the Indian Constitution indeed specifies the special procedure to be followed in relation to Money Bills. According to Article 109, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and not in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). It also outlines the specific provisions related to the passage and consideration of Money Bills.

A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.

• Correct. As per Article 109 of the Constitution, a Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. It must originate in the Lok Sabha and, once passed by the Lok Sabha, it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations. The Rajya Sabha can suggest amendments, but it cannot initiate or pass a Money Bill.

The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.

• Correct. The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to reject a Money Bill. It can only suggest amendments. The Lok Sabha may or may not accept these amendments. However, if the Lok Sabha does not accept any of the amendments proposed by the Rajya Sabha, the Money Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was originally passed by the Lok Sabha.

While the Rajya Sabha can suggest amendments to a Money Bill, it is not mandatory for the Lok Sabha to accept these amendments.

Article 109: https://indiankanoon.org/doc/729393/

Source: Indian Polity By M.Laxmikant 7th Edition (Chapter 23)

19. Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?

Select the correct answer using the code given below : 

1. 1 and 4 
2. 1 and 3 
3. 2, 3 and 4 
4. 3 only 

Ans: D

Subject: Current Affairs

Solution: 

Source: https://vishwabharatigurukul.com/equivalent-ranks-indian-armed-forces/ 

20. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members ? 

1. Governor of the Constituent State 
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State 
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India 
4. The Home Minister of India 

Select the correct answer using the code given below : 

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only 

(c) 2 and 4 only 

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

Ans: A

Subject: Polity

Solution: 

Source: https://necouncil.gov.in/ 

21. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’ : 

1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha. 
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act. 
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Casters Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes. 

Which of the statements given above are correct ? 

1. 1, 2 and 3 
2. 1 and 2 only 
3. 2 and 3 only 
4. 1 and 3 only 
   

Q. 21 Nari shakti vandan 

Ans: C

Subject: Polity

Solution: 

Key features of the Bill

• Reservation for women: The Bill reserves, as nearly as may be, one-third of all seats for women in Lok Sabha, state legislative assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi.  This will also apply to the seats reserved for SCs and STs in Lok Sabha and states legislatures.  
• Commencement of reservation: The reservation will be effective after the census conducted after the commencement of this Bill has been published.   Based on the census, delimitation will be undertaken to reserve seats for women.  The reservation will be provided for a period of 15 years.   However, it shall continue till such date as determined by a law made by Parliament. 
• Rotation of seats: Seats reserved for women will be rotated after each delimitation, as determined by a law made by Parliament.   

Source: https://prsindia.org/billtrack/the-constitution-one-hundred-twenty-eighth-amendment-bill-2023

22. Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct? 

1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh. 
2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune). 
3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation. 
4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below : 

1. 1, 2 and 3 
2. 1, 2 and 4 
3. 1, 3 and 4 
4. 2, 3 and 4 

Ans: D

Subject: Current Affairs

Solution: 

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1977339#:~:text=Exercise%20MITRA%20SHAKTI%20–%202023%20will,rehearsed%20jointly%20by%20both%20sides.

23. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to : 

1. a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action. 
2. the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition. 
3. the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case. 
4. the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy. 

Ans: C

Subject: Polity

Solution: 

Source: Indian Polity By M Laxmikant 7th Edition (Chapter 8 and Chapter 26)

24. Consider the following statements: 

1. It is the Government of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe. 
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not to be so in another State. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 

A. 1 only 
B. 2 only 
C. Both 1 and 2 
D. Neither 2 nor 2 

Ans: B

Subject: Polity

Solution: 

Statement 1: It is not the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe. According to Article 342 of the Constitution of India, it is the President who declares.

Statement 2: The Scheduled Tribe status is not uniform across all states in India. A community recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in one state may not necessarily have the same status in another state. The recognition of Scheduled Tribe status varies based on specific criteria and historical contexts relevant to each state.

Article 342: https://indiankanoon.org/doc/768139/

Source: Indian Polity By M Laxmikant 7th Edition (Chapter 42)

25. With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament. 
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 

A. 1 only 
B. 2 only 
C. Both 1 and 2 
D. Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: B

Subject: Polity

Solution: 

Article 112: https://indiankanoon.org/doc/280240/

Source: Indian Polity By M Laxmikant 7th Edition (Chapter 23)

26. Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”? 

A. Bhupendra Yadav 
B. Nalin Mehta 
C. Shashi Tharoor 
D. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar 

Ans: D 

Subject: Current Affairs

Solution: 

Source: https://www.goodreads.com/author/list/20524820.S_Jaishankar

27. Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 

A. Only one pair 
B. Only two pairs 
C. All three pairs 
D. None of the pairs 

Ans: B

Subject: Current Affairs

Solution: 

Source: https://www.aljazeera.com/news/2024/6/19/civil-war-in-sudan-takes-centre-stage-at-un

Source: https://www.nato.int/cps/en/natohq/topics_52044.htm

Source: https://www.aljazeera.com/news/2024/1/11/imf-unlocks-4-7bn-for-argentina-amid-economic-crisis-milei-austerity-cuts

28. Consider the following statements : 

Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe. 

Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? 

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I 
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I 
C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 
D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct 

Ans: A

Subject: Current Affairs

Solution: 

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sumed_pipeline 

Source: https://www.eia.gov/todayinenergy/detail.php?id=40152

29. Consider the following statements : 

1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form. 
2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

A. 1 only 
B. 2 only 
C. Both 1 and 2 
D. Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: A (Controversial)

Subject: Geography

Solution: 

Statement 1:The Red Sea region is generally arid and receives minimal precipitation. The primary source of water in the Red Sea comes from the Gulf of Aden through the Bab el Mandeb strait, and not from direct rainfall.

Statement 2: While the Red Sea is mainly fed by oceanic currents and not rivers directly flowing into it, there are small seasonal streams and wadis that drain into the Red Sea during periods of heavy rainfall in the surrounding arid regions. These inputs, although minor compared to oceanic inflow, do contribute some water to the Red Sea.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/ship-earlier-attacked-by-yemens-houthi-rebels-sinks-in-the-red-sea/article67907262.ece 

30. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions ? 

A. Locomotives using fossil fuels 
B. Ships using fossil fuels 
C. Extraction of metals from ores 
D. Power plants using fossil fuels 

Ans: D

Subject: Environment

Solution: 

Source: https://www.epa.gov/so2-pollution/sulfur-dioxide-basics#:~:text=Smaller%20sources%20of%20SO2,with%20a%20high%20sulfur%20content. 

31. Consider the following statements : 

Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment. 

Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? 

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I 
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I 
C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 
D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct 

Ans: D

Subject: Economy

Solution: 

Statement-I is incorrect. In the event that the USA were to default on its debt obligations, holders of US Treasury Bonds (considered very safe investments globally) would still have legal claims to receive payment. Defaulting on debt would severely impact the global financial markets and the credibility of US Treasury securities, but it would not eliminate the legal obligation of the US government to pay its debts.

Statement-II is correct. US Government debt, including US Treasury Bonds, is not backed by specific hard assets like gold reserves. Instead, the value and repayment of US Treasury securities are backed by the full faith and credit of the US government. This means investors trust that the US government will honor its financial obligations.

Source: https://www.cnn.com/2023/05/08/politics/debt-default-payment-prioritization-treasury/index.html 

32. Consider the following statements : 

Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders. 

Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? 

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I 
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I 
C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 
D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct 

Ans: C

Subject: Economy

Solution: 

Statement-I is correct. Syndicated lending involves a group of lenders collectively providing funds to a borrower. This approach helps in spreading the risk associated with borrower default across multiple lenders rather than having a single lender bear the entire risk.

Statement-II is incorrect. A syndicated loan can indeed be structured as either a fixed amount (a lump sum) or as a credit line (revolving credit facility). In a revolving credit facility, the borrower can access funds up to a specified limit, repay the borrowed amount, and then borrow again up to the limit during the term of the facility. This flexibility is one of the key features of syndicated loans.

Source: https://www.investopedia.com/terms/s/syndicatedloan.asp

33. Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee : 

1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy. 
2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet. 
3. It is insured against inflation by its very design. 
4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash. 

Which of the statements given above are correct ? 

A. 1 and 2 only 
B. 1 and 3 only 
C. 2 and 4 only 
D. 1, 2 and 4 

Ans: D

Subject: Economy

Solution: 

With respect of the digital rupee :

1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
3. It is not insured against inflation by its very design.
4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.

Source: https://rbi.org.in/Scripts/PublicationReportDetails.aspx?UrlPage=&ID=1218

34. With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets ? 

1. Nayaputta 
2. Shakyamuni 
3. Tathagata 

Select the correct answer using the code given below : 

A. 1 only 
B. 2 and 3 only 
C. 1, 2 and 3 
D. None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha 

Ans: B

Subject: Ancient

Solution: 

In ancient India, Gautama Buddha was known by several epithets. Let's analyze each option:

1. Nayaputta: This epithet is not commonly associated with Gautama Buddha. It is associated with Mahavira Jain. 
2. Shakyamuni: This is a widely recognized epithet of Gautama Buddha. It means "Sage of the Shakya clan," referring to his birth in the Shakya clan.
3. Tathagata: This is another well-known epithet of Gautama Buddha. It has several meanings, including "One who has thus come" or "One who has thus gone."

Source: Direct Source - 11th Old NCERT - Chap 9 Jainism and Buddhism

Source: http://mahavirswami.com/tirthankar.php?tirthankar=24

35. Consider the following information :

In which of the above rows is given information correctly matched ? 

A. 1 and 2 
B. 2 and 3 
C. 3 and 4 
D. 1 and 4 

Ans: B

Subject: Ancient History

Solution: 

Chandraketugarh is indeed an archaeological site in India, but it’s located in West Bengal, not Odisha. It was a major trading port town during the Maurya and Gupta empires.

Inamgaon is a chalcolithic site located in Maharashtra, and the information provided is correct.

Mangadu in Kerala has megalithic sites.

Salihundam has Buddhist chaityas but these are not rock cut caves.

Source: Chandraketugarh in 2021 PYQ - Inamgaon in NCERT (Chap 5 Stone Copper Phase)

Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/travel/destinations/chandraketugarh-a-lesser-known-archaeological-site-in-west-bengal/articleshow/70645871.cms

Source: https://core.ac.uk/download/pdf/5105396.pdf

Source: https://www.archaeology.kerala.gov.in/monuments/madankavu-urnburial-site/44

Source: https://srikakulam.ap.gov.in/engineering-tourism/

36. Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal ? 

A. Krishnadevaraya 
B. Narasimha Saluva 
C. Muhammad Shah III 
D. Yusuf Adil Shah 

Ans: A

Subject: Ancient

Solution: The ruler who gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal was Krishnadevaraya.

Here's why the other options are incorrect:

(b) Narasimha Saluva: Preceded Krishnadevaraya and wouldn't have been in power during the relevant period.

(c) Muhammad Shah III: Ruled the Delhi Sultanate, geographically distant from Bhatkal.

(d) Yusuf Adil Shah: Sultan of Bijapur, which often clashed with the Portuguese.

Source: No Direct Source - 12th Old NCERT mentions about the good relations between Krishnadev Raya and Portuguese

37. With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements: 

1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities. 
2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 

A. 1 only 
B. 2 only 
C. Both 1 and 2 
D. Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: B

Subject: Modern 

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Ryotwari Settlement did not exempt peasants from revenue payment during bad harvests.

Statement 2 is correct because removal from Zamindari was a consequence of failing to pay taxes under the Permanent Settlement.

Source: Old NCERT Textbook Modern India by Bipin Chandra.

38. Consider the following statements : 

1. There are no parables in Upanishads. 
2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 

A. 1 only 
B. 2 only 
C. Both 1 and 2 
D. Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: B

Subject: Ancient History

Solution: 

Statement 1 is not correct. Upanishads primarily consist of philosophical teachings, dialogues between teachers and students, and discussions on metaphysics, meditation, and the nature of reality. They also include parables, which are also found, more commonly, in religious texts like the Puranas.

Statement 2 is correct. The Upanishads are ancient philosophical texts that are considered part of the Vedas, and they were composed between 800 BCE to 400 BCE approximately. In contrast, the Puranas, which are a genre of Hindu religious texts that include mythological narratives, history, cosmology, and legends, were composed later, mostly between the 3rd and 16th centuries CE.

Source: Direct Source - 11th Old NCERT + Themes (New NCERT)

 39. Consider the following statements : 

1. India is a member of the International Grains Council. 
2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only 
B. 2 only 
C. Both 1 and 2 
D. Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: A

Subject: Current Affairs

Solution: 

Statement 1 is correct. India is a member of the International Grains Council. The IGC is an intergovernmental organization that deals with grains trade and market information, and its membership includes countries that are major exporters and importers of grains.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Membership in the IGC is not a requirement for countries to export or import rice and wheat. The IGC provides a forum for member countries to discuss and coordinate policies related to grains, but it does not regulate or control international trade in rice and wheat.

Source: http://www.igc.int/en/about/aboutus.aspx#

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/International_Grains_Council

40. Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO ? 
A. Chhau dance 
B. Durga Puja 
C. Garba dance 
D. Kumbh mela 

Ans: C

Subject: Current Affairs

Solution: Garba is the latest inclusion in 2023.

Source: https://ich.unesco.org/en/state/india-IN?info=elements-on-the-lists

41. Consider the following statements : 

Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region. 

Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups detat in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? 

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I 
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I 
C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 
D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct 

Ans: A

Subject: Current Affairs / PYQs (2021/22/23)

Solution: 

Statement-I is correct. The Sahel region, which spans across several countries in Africa including Mali, Niger, Burkina Faso, Chad, and Mauritania, has been experiencing instability due to various factors such as ethnic conflicts, terrorism (including groups affiliated with ISIS and Al-Qaeda), organized crime (such as drug trafficking and human trafficking), and weak governance. The security situation in the Sahel has indeed worsened over recent years, prompting international concern and efforts to stabilize the region.

Statement-II is correct. Several countries in the Sahel region have experienced military takeovers or coups d'état in the recent past. For example:

• In Mali, there were coups in 2012, 2020, and 2021.
• In Burkina Faso, there was a coup in 2014.
• In Niger, there was a coup in 2010.

Source: 300 Topics: ECOWAS and Location in News (Sahel Countries

https://www.ips-journal.eu/topics/democracy-and-society/a-coup-after-coup-in-the-sahel-6976/

https://frontline.thehindu.com/world-affairs/africa-sahel-region-witnesses-a-second-scramble-for-independence-coups-sudan-guinea-burkina-faso-niger-chad/article67747956.ece

https://youtu.be/jqrw4CVr0c0?si=uAdvTDR1Nl2HZVSX&t=1761

42. Consider the following statements : 

Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America. 

Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? 

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I 
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I 
C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 
D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct 

Ans: D

Subject: Current Affairs

Solution: 

Statement-I is incorrect. India does import apples from the United States of America. Apples are one of the fruits imported by India, and the USA is one of the major exporters of apples to India.

Statement-II is correct. India has regulations in place regarding the import of Genetically Modified (GM) organisms and GM foods. The import, manufacture, sale, distribution, and use of GMOs and GM products in India are regulated under the Environment Protection Act, 1986, and the Rules for Manufacture, Use, Import, Export, and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells, 1989. 

Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/imports-of-us-apples-rise-40-times-in-3-months-as-india-scraps-retaliatory-duty/article67631576.ece 

43. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements : 

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration 

1. He/She shall not preside. 
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak 
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 

A. 1 only 
B. 1 and 2 only 
C. 2 and 3 only 
D. 1, 2 and 3 

Ans: A

Subject: Polity

Solution: 

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration

1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall have the right to speak
3. He/She shall be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Source: Indian Polity By M Laxmikant 7th Edition (Chapter 23)

44. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. 
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. 
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 

A. 1 only 
B. 1 and 2 
C. 2 and 3 
D. 3 only 

Ans: B

Subject: Polity

Solution: 

Statement 1 is correct because bills pending in the Lok Sabha lapse on its dissolution.

Statement 2 is correct because bills passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.

Statement 3 is incorrect because bills for which a joint sitting has been notified by the President do not lapse.

Source: Indian Polity By M Laxmikant 7th Edition ( Chapter 23)

45. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 

1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 

A. 1 only 
B. 1 and 2 
C. 2 and 3 
D. 3 only 

Ans: C

Subject: Polity

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect because prorogation by the President does require the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Statement 2 is correct because prorogation can be done even if the House is in session, although it usually follows adjournment sine die.

Statement 3 is correct because dissolution of the Lok Sabha is generally done on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in exceptional circumstances.

46. Consider the following statements : 

Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently. 

Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? 

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I 
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I 
C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 
D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct 

Ans: C

Subject: Current Affairs

Solution: 

Statement-I is correct because there is a recent approval of a "Net-Zero Industry Act" by the European Parliament.

Statement-II is incorrect because the EU's target for achieving carbon neutrality is 2050, not 2040, and the statement about developing all of its own clean technology by 2040 is not accurate.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/eu-clears-law-to-increase-domestic-green-tech-production-9355291/

47. Consider the following statements : 

Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries. 

Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? 

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I 
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I 
C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 
D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct 

Ans: D

Subject: Current Affairs

Solution: 

Statement-I is incorrect. Venezuela has been facing a severe economic crisis for several years, characterized by hyperinflation, economic contraction, shortages of basic goods and services, and political instability. This crisis has led to a significant exodus of Venezuelans fleeing the country in search of better living conditions and opportunities abroad. The economic situation in Venezuela remains dire, and there has been no recent rapid recovery that would prevent emigration.

Statement-II is correct. Venezuela is known to have the world's largest proven oil reserves, surpassing even Saudi Arabia. The country's oil reserves are mainly located in the Orinoco Belt (Faja Petrolífera del Orinoco), which contains vast deposits of heavy crude oil.

Source: https://www.csis.org/analysis/persistence-venezuelan-migrant-and-refugee-crisis

https://www.opec.org/opec_web/en/data_graphs/330.htm

48. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements : 

1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding. 
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitized. 
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. 

Which of the statements given above are correct ? 

A. 1 and 2 only 
B. 2 and 3 only 
C. 1 and 3 only 
D. 1, 2 and 3 

Ans: D

Subject: Current Affairs

Solution: 

Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme features:

1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitized.
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1989671

49. With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements : 

1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

A. 1 only 
B. 2 only 
C. Both 1 and 2 
D. Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: C

Subject: Current Affairs

Solution: 

Statement 1 is not accurate regarding the post-delivery health care services.

Statement 2 is correct because the PMSMA involves the participation of private sector healthcare providers who volunteer to provide antenatal care services at government health facilities.

Source: https://pmsma.mohfw.gov.in

Source: https://www.myscheme.gov.in/schemes/suman

50. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements : 

1. The entry age group for enrolment in the shceme is 21 to 40 years. 
2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary. 
3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of Rs. 3000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years. 
4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 

A. 1, 3 and 4 
B. 2 and 3 only 
C. 2 only 
D. 1, 2 and 4 

Ans: B

Subject: Current Affairs

Solution: 

Statement 1 is incorrect regarding the entry age group. The PM-SYM Yojana is targeted towards unorganized sector workers whose entry age is between 18 to 40 years.

Statement 2 is correct regarding the contribution requirement by the beneficiary.

Statement 3 is correct regarding the minimum pension amount of Rs. 3000 per month.

Statement 4 is incorrect because family pension is applicable only to the spouse, not unmarried daughters.

Source: https://static.pib.gov.in/WriteReadData/specificdocs/documents/2022/mar/doc20223923901.pdf

51. Consider the following statements : 

Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation. 

Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? 

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I 
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I 
C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 
D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct 

Ans: D

Subject: Geography

Solution: The atmosphere is actually heated more by terrestrial radiation than by incoming solar radiation. This is because the Earth's surface absorbs solar radiation and then re-emits it as long wave terrestrial radiation, which is then absorbed by greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide. These gases are good absorbers of long wave radiation, leading to the warming of the atmosphere. Therefore, Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct. 

Source: NCERT Class XI Fundamental of Physical Geography Chapter 8.

52. Consider the following statements : 

Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles. 

Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? 

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I 
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I 
C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 
D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct 

Ans: A

Subject: Geography

Solution: The thickness of the troposphere is greater at the equator than at the poles primarily due to the intense heating from the sun at the equator. This intense heating leads to the formation of strong convectional currents, which transport heat to great heights, causing the troposphere to expand. Thus, Statement-I and Statement-II are both correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Source: NCERT Concept based.

53. Consider the following : 

1. Pyroclastic debris 
2. Ash and dust 
3. Nitrogen compounds 
4. Sulphur compounds 

How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions ? 

A. Only one 
B. Only two 
C. Only three 
D. All four 

Ans: D

Subject: Geography

Solution: Pyroclastic debris, ash and dust, and sulphur compounds are common products of volcanic eruptions. Nitrogen compounds are not typically associated with volcanic eruptions. Therefore, only three of the given items (pyroclastic debris, ash and dust, and sulphur compounds) are products of volcanic eruptions.

Source: NCERT Concept based, Volcanic eruptions in news recently.

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/indonesian-volcano-eruption-forces-evacuations-airport-closure-officials-flag-tsunami-threat/article68078789.ece

54. Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January? 

1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. 
2. The presence of cold ocean currents. Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north. 

Select the answer using the code given below : 

A. 1 only 
B. 2 only 
C. Both 1 and 2 
D. Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: A

Subject: Geography

Solution:

In January, isotherms typically deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent due to the differential heating of land and water. However, the Gulf Stream and the North Atlantic Drift are warm ocean currents, not cold, which actually make the North Atlantic Ocean warmer, causing the isotherms to bend towards the north. Thus, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.

Source: NCERT Concept based.

https://etc.usf.edu/maps/pages/2100/2128/2128.htm

55. Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world ? 

A. Algeria and Morocco 
B. Botswana and Namibia 
C. Cote d'Ivoire and Ghana 
D. Madagascar and Mozambique 

Ans: C 

Subject: Geography

Solution:  Cote d'Ivoire (Ivory Coast) and Ghana are the two largest cocoa producers in the world, contributing a significant portion of global cocoa production. They are well-known for their large-scale cocoa farming and export. The other listed countries are not major cocoa producers.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Kochi/cocoa-price-breaches-800-a-kg-mark-as-scarcity-persists/article68054181.ece

56. With reference to the Himalayan rivers Joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct ? 

A. Ghaghara - Gomati - Gandak - Kosi 
B. Gomati - Ghaghara - Gandak - Kosi 
C. Ghaghara - Gomati - Kosi – Gandak 
D. Gomati - Ghaghara - Kosi - Gandak 

Ans: B

Subject: Geography

Solution: The correct sequence of the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from west to east is: Ghaghara, Gomati, Gandak, and Kosi. This sequence follows the geographical location of these rivers as they flow from the Himalayas and join the Ganga.

Source: NCERT 11th - India Physical Environment - Chapter Indian Drainage system

57. Consider the following statements : 

Statement-I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks. 

Statement II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution. 

Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? 

A. Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I 
B. Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I 
C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I 
D. Neither Statement-II nor Statement-Ill is correct 

Ans: A

Subject: Geography

Solution:

Rainfall contributes to the weathering of rocks through various mechanisms. Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution, forming a weak carbonic acid that can chemically weather rocks (Statement-II). Additionally, rain water contains atmospheric oxygen, which can contribute to the oxidation of minerals in rocks, leading to weathering (Statement-III). Both statements are correct and explain Statement-I.

Source: NCERT Concept based.

58. Consider the following countries : 

1. Finland 
2. Germany 
3. Norway 
4. Russia 

How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea? 

A. Only one 
B. Only two 
C. Only three 
D. All four 

Ans: B

Subject: Geography

Solution: Germany and Norway have coastlines along the North Sea. Finland and Russia do not have a border with the North Sea. Therefore, only two of the listed countries (Germany and Norway) border the North Sea.

Source: Map based (https://youtu.be/qu3BSTK26pA?si=h9Y8Y79fzXmk_2Sj&t=1203)

59. Consider the following information:

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched ? 

A. Only one 
B. Only two 
C. All three 
4. None 

Ans: A

Subject: Geography

Solution:

The Dhuandhar waterfall is correctly matched with the Narmada River, but it is located in the Jabalpur region of Madhya Pradesh, not Malwa.

The Hundru waterfall is correctly matched with the Chota Nagpur region and the Subarnarekha River.

The Gersoppa (Jog) Falls is correctly matched with the Western Ghats, but it is on the Sharavathi River, not the Netravati River.

Therefore, only two of the matches are correct based on the regions and rivers (though Gersoppa's river is incorrect).

Source: Map based

60. Consider the following information:

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched ? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two 
3. Only three 
4. All four 

Ans: B

Subject: Geography

Solution:

The Vosges mountains are in Europe, specifically France, and they are block mountains, not fold mountains.

The Alps are in Europe, but they are fold mountains, not block mountains.

The Appalachians in North America are correctly identified as fold mountains.

The Andes in South America are correctly identified as fold mountains.

Source: Atlas, map based

61. The organisms "Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater" are : 

A. Birds 
B. Fish 
C. Insects 
D. Reptiles 

Ans: C

Subject: Environment

Solution: Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater are all insects. Cicadas are known for their loud calls, Froghoppers are known for their jumping ability, and Pond skaters (or water striders) are known for their ability to walk on water.

Species in news: Cicada

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/commonly-found-cicada-species-sheds-its-foreign-tag-to-embrace-an-indian-identity/article67087350.ece

62. Consider the following statements : 

Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.

Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? 

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I 
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 
D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct 

Ans: A

Subject: Environment

Solution: Many chewing gums indeed contain plastic as a gum base, which contributes to environmental pollution. When improperly disposed of, these gums can take years to break down and contribute to littering and plastic pollution. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Source: https://www.sciencefocus.com/science/what-is-in-chewing-gum

https://theearthview.in/chewing-gums-its-a-sticky-problem/

63. Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ? 

A. Only one 
B. Only two 
C. All three 
D. None 

Ans: D

Subject: Environment

Solution:

• Indri is a type of lemur found only in Madagascar, not Brazil.
• Elk are native to North America and parts of Asia, not Indonesia.
• Bonobo is found in the Democratic Republic of Congo, not Madagascar.

Therefore, none of the pairs are correctly matched.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/bonobos-are-not-so-nice-just-like-humans-9272299/

64. Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization : 

1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations. 
2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis. 
3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 

A. 2 only 
B. 3 only 
C. 1 and 2 
D. 2 and 3 

Ans: A

Subject: current affairs

Solution: The World Toilet Organization (WTO) is not an agency of the United Nations. It is an independent non-profit organization.

The World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day, and World Toilet College are indeed initiatives of the World Toilet Organization aimed at addressing the global sanitation crisis.

The main focus of the World Toilet Organization is not to grant funds but to advocate for improved sanitation and hygiene practices through education, training, and awareness campaigns.

Source: https://worldtoilet.org/web-agency-gb-about-us/

65. Consider the following statements : 

1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season. 
2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar. 
3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking. 

Which of the statements given above are correct ? 

A. 1 and 2 only 
2 and 3 only 
1 and 3 only 
1, 2 and 3 

Ans: D

Subject: Environment

Solution:

Lions indeed do not have a particular breeding season; they can mate and reproduce throughout the year.

Cheetahs do not roar; instead, they communicate with a variety of sounds including purrs, chirps, and growls.

Male leopards, like male lions, do proclaim their territory by scent marking. This statement is incorrect.

Source: 

https://nationalzoo.si.edu/animals/lion

https://www.deccanherald.com/india/did-you-know-fast-but-dismal-hunters-cheetahs-dont-roar-1145890.html

https://pondoro.co.za/blog/leopard-scent-marking/

66. Which one of the following is the correct description of "100 Million Farmers" ? 

A. It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience. 

B. It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry. 

C. It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely. 

D. It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products. 

Ans: A

Subject: Current affairs

Solution: The "100 Million Farmers" platform focuses on promoting sustainable agricultural practices that help in achieving net-zero carbon emissions, are nature-positive, and aim to improve the resilience of farmers to various environmental and economic challenges. This description aligns with the goals of transitioning food and water systems to be more sustainable and resilient.

Source: https://initiatives.weforum.org/100-million-farmers/home

67. Consider the following: 

1. Battery storage 
2. Biomass generators 
3. Fuel cells 
4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units 

How many of the above are considered "Distributed Energy Resources" ? 

A. Only one 
B. Only two 
C. Only three 
D. All four 

Ans: D

Subject: Science and tech current affairs

Solution:

Distributed Energy Resources (DERs) refer to smaller power sources that can be aggregated to provide power necessary to meet regular demand. They are typically renewable or low-emission and can be located close to where the energy is used. All four options listed—battery storage, biomass generators, fuel cells, and rooftop solar photovoltaic units—are considered DERs as they can all generate, store, or manage electricity close to the point of use.

Source: https://www.aemc.gov.au/energy-system/electricity/electricity-system/distributed-energy-resources

68. Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has co-evolved with it and that is the only insect that ta pollinate this tree ? 

A. Fig 
B. Mahua 
C. Sandalwood 
D. Silk cotton 

Ans: A

Subject: Environment

Solution: The fig tree (genus Ficus) has a unique and specialized relationship with fig wasps (family Agaonidae). This mutualistic relationship has coevolved such that each species of fig tree is pollinated by a specific species of fig wasp, making it the only insect capable of pollinating that particular fig tree. This coevolutionary relationship is highly specialized and crucial for the reproduction of both the fig tree and the fig wasp.

Source: https://www.fs.usda.gov/wildflowers/pollinators/pollinator-of-the-month/fig_wasp.shtml

69. Consider the following : 

1. Butterflies 
2. Fish 
3. Frogs 

How many of the above have poisonous species among them ? 

A. Only one 
B. Only two 
C. All three 
D. None 

Ans: C

Subject: Environement

Solution:

Butterflies: Some species of butterflies, such as the Monarch butterfly, are poisonous to predators due to toxic compounds they accumulate from their host plants (milkweed).

Fish: There are many species of poisonous fish, such as the pufferfish, which contains tetrodotoxin, a potent neurotoxin.

Frogs: Numerous frog species are poisonous, notably the poison dart frogs, which secrete toxins through their skin.

Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/international/us/brazil-man-dies-after-eating-pufferfish-what-happened-to-him/articleshow/107389069.cms

https://www.bbc.com/news/world-latin-america-68138756#

https://news.berkeley.edu/2021/11/22/what-it-takes-to-eat-a-poisonous-butterfly/

70. Consider the following : 

1. Cashew 
2. Papaya 
3. Red sanders 

How many of the above trees are actually native to India ? 

A. Only one 
B. Only two 
C. All three 
D. None 

Ans: A

Subject: Environment

Solution:

Cashew: Native to Brazil.

Papaya: Native to tropical regions of the Americas.

Red sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus): Native to India, specifically the Southern Eastern Ghats.

Source: CSE Prelims 2016

https://www.britannica.com/plant/cashew

https://www.britannica.com/plant/papaya

71. Consider the following airports: 

1. Donyi Polo Airport 
2. Kushinagar International Airport 
3. Vijayawada International Airport 

In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects ? 

A. 1 and 2 only 
B. 2 and 3 only 
C. 1 and 3 only 
D. 1, 2 and 3 

Ans: A

Subject: Economy/Current Affairs

Solution: Donyi Polo Airport: Constructed as a Greenfield project in Arunachal Pradesh, India.

Kushinagar International Airport: Also constructed as a Greenfield project in Uttar Pradesh, India.

Vijayawada International Airport: Not a Greenfield project; it is a brownfield project.

Therefore, Donyi Polo Airport and Kushinagar International Airport have been constructed as Greenfield projects.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1906346

72. With reference to "water vapour", which of the following statements is/are correct ? 

1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude. 
2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles. 

Select the answer using the code given below : 

A. 1 only 
B. 2 only 
C. Both 1 and 2 
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: A

Subject: Geography

Solution: 

It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude: This is correct. The concentration of water vapour decreases with altitude because the temperature decreases, reducing the air's capacity to hold moisture.

Its percentage is maximum at the poles: This is incorrect. The percentage of water vapour is not maximum at the poles. In fact, it is typically very low at the poles due to the cold temperatures which limit the amount of water vapour the air can hold. The highest concentrations of water vapour are found in the tropics.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Source: NCERT Concept based. 

73. Consider the following description : 

1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low. 
2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year. 
3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm – 250 cm. 

What is this type of climate ? 

1. Equatorial climate 
2. China type climate 
3. Humid subtropical climate 
4. Marine West coast climate 

Ans: D

Subject: Geography

Solution:

The Marine West Coast climate, also known as the oceanic climate, is characterized by:

1. a low range of annual and daily temperatures due to the moderating influence of the ocean.
2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year, and it typically ranges between 50 cm and 250 cm.
3. This climate is commonly found on the western coasts of continents in the mid-latitudes.

Source: NCERT Concept based. / GC Leong.

74. With reference to "Coriolis force", which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It increases with increase in wind velocity. 
2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. 

Select the answer using the code given below : 

A. 1 only 
B. 2 only 
C. Both 1 and 2 
D. Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: C

Subject: Geography

Solution: It increases with increase in wind velocity: This is correct. The Coriolis force is proportional to the speed of the moving object, so it increases with an increase in wind velocity.

It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator: This is also correct. The Coriolis force is zero at the equator and increases towards the poles, where it reaches its maximum.

Source: NCERT Concept based. / GC Leong.

Source: https://education.nationalgeographic.org/resource/coriolis-effect/

75. On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours ? 

1. Equator
2. Tropic of Cancer 
3. Tropic of Capricorn 
4. Arctic Circle 

Select the correct answer using the code given below : 

A. 1 only 
B. 2 only 
C. 3 and 4 
D. 2 and 4 

Ans: D

Subject: Geography

Solution:

Equator: On June 21 (summer solstice) the equator experiences an equal day and night - approximately 12 hours of daylight and 12 hours of darkness.

Tropic of Cancer: On June 21, the Tropic of Cancer (23.5°N) experiences the summer solstice, receiving more than 12 hours of sunlight as it is the longest day of the year in the Northern Hemisphere.

Tropic of Capricorn: On June 21, the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5°S) experiences less than 12 hours of sunlight because it is winter in the Southern Hemisphere.

Arctic Circle: On June 21, the Arctic Circle (66.5°N) experiences continuous daylight for 24 hours due to the phenomenon of the Midnight Sun.

Therefore, the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle experience more than 12 hours of sunlight on June 21.

Source: NCERT Concept based. / GC Leong.

76. One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region? 

A. Amazon Basin 
B. Congo Basin 
C. Kikon Basin 
D. Rio de la Plata Basin 

Ans: B

Subject: Geography

Solution: The Congo Basin is home to the world’s largest tropical peatland, which stores a significant amount of carbon. The peatlands in this region are critical for regulating the global climate, as they hold about three years' worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels. Their destruction could release large amounts of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, leading to severe climate consequences.

Source: In news recently due to environmental degradation.

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/africa/more-research-investment-needed-to-protect-congo-basin-peatlands-finds-report-85002.

77. With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer product, consider the following statements : 

1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging material. 
2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment. 
3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

A. 1 and 2 only 
B. 2 and 3 only 
C. 1 and 3 only 
D. 1, 2 and 3 

Ans: D

Subject: Environment

Solution:

Statement 1: PFAS are indeed found to be widespread in drinking water, food, and food packaging materials due to their extensive use in various consumer products.

Statement 2: PFAS are known for their resistance to environmental degradation, earning them the nickname "forever chemicals."

Statement 3: Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies, causing potential health risks.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

https://www.fda.gov/food/environmental-contaminants-food/and-polyfluoroalkyl-substances-pfas

https://www.michigan.gov/pfasresponse/resources/action/consumer-products

78. Consider the following : 

1. Carabid beetles 
2. Centipedes 
3. Flies 
4. Termites 
5. Wasps 

Parasitiod species are found how many of the above kind of organisms? 

A. Only two 
B. Only three 
C. Only four 
D. All Five 

Ans: B

Subject: Environment

Solution:

Carabid beetles: These beetles are typically predators rather than parasitoids.

Centipedes: Centipedes are also predators and not known to have parasitoid species.

Flies: Many flies, especially in the families Tachinidae and some others, have parasitoid species.

Termites: Termites are primarily decomposers of plant material and do not have parasitoid species.

Wasps: Wasps, particularly in the families Ichneumonidae and Braconidae, have many parasitoid species.

Source: https://australian.museum/learn/animals/insects/predators-parasites-and-parasitoids/#parasitoid

79. Consider the following plants: 

1. Groundnut 
2. Horse-gram 
3. Soybean 

How many of the above belong to the pea family ? 

A. Only one 
B. Only two 
C. All three 
D. None 

Ans: C

Subject: Environment

Solution:

Groundnut (Peanut): Belongs to the Fabaceae (pea) family.

Horse-gram: Belongs to the Fabaceae (pea) family.

Soybean: Belongs to the Fabaceae (pea) family.

Therefore, all three plants (groundnut, horse-gram, and soybean) belong to the pea family.

80. Consider the following statements 

Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. 

Statement-II: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? 

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I 
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. 
C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 
D. Statement-l is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct. 

Ans: C (Controversial)

Subject: Environment

Solution:

Statement-I: After the recent amendment of WPA in 2022, Schedule V was done away with. Instead schedules were merged to provide for a more holistic protection for endangered species.

The Indian Flying Fox (Pteropus giganteus) is under Schedule II of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. It is actually protected under Schedule II of the act, but this does not prevent it from being categorized it as vermin if the government sees fit to announce the same.

Statement-II: The Indian Flying Fox does not feed on the blood of other animals. It is a frugivorous bat, meaning it primarily feeds on fruits, nectar, and flowers.

Therefore, Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is also incorrect.

Statement 2 is defnitely incorrect, statement 1 might also be incorrect which makes any of the options given here incorrect.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/flying-fox-bats-for-vigilance-while-roosting/article67184575.ece,

81. The total fertility rate in a economy is defined as : 

A. The number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year. 
B. The number of children born to couple in their lifetime in a given population. 
C. The birth rate minus death rate. 
D. The average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age. 

Ans: D 

Subject: Economy

Solution: The total fertility rate (TFR) is a demographic measure that estimates the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age (typically considered to be ages 15-49) if she were to experience the current age-specific fertility rates throughout her reproductive life.

Source: https://www.who.int/data/gho/indicator-metadata-registry/imr-details/123

82. Consider the following statements: 

1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India. 
2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs). 
3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

A. 1 and 2 only 
B. 3 only 
C. 1, 2 and 3 
D. 2 and 3 only 

Ans: C (Controversial?)

Subject: Economy

Solution:
Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) access to Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF): The LAF is primarily available to scheduled commercial banks and Primary Dealers (PD). PDs are registered as NBFCs and they have LAF access.

Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) holding Government Securities (G-Secs): In India, FIIs are allowed to invest in Government Securities subject to certain limits and regulations.

Stock Exchanges offering separate trading platforms for debts: Indian stock exchanges, such as the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) and the National Stock Exchange (NSE), offer separate trading platforms for debt securities.

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Source: Indian Economy Handbook- Banking/Financial Market

https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/FS_FAQs.aspx?Id=79&fn=2757#6

https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?Id=9841&Mode=0#1

83. In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities? 

1. Insurance Companies 
2. Pension Funds 
3. Retail Investors 

Select the correct answer using the code given below : 

A. 1 and 2 only 
B. 2 and 3 only 
C. 1 and 3 only 
D. 1, 2 and 3 

Ans: D

Subject: Economy

Solution:

Insurance Companies: Insurance companies are significant institutional investors and can trade in both corporate bonds and government securities.

Pension Funds: Pension funds are also large institutional investors that are allowed to trade in corporate bonds and government securities.

Retail Investors: Retail investors can trade in corporate bonds and government securities through various platforms and brokers.

Therefore, all three (insurance companies, pension funds, and retail investors) can trade in corporate bonds and government securities in India.

84. Consider the following: 

1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF) 
2. Motor vehicles 
3. Currency swap 

Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments? 

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only 
C. 1, 2 and 3 
D. 1 and 3 only 

Ans: D

Subject: Economy 

Solution: 

Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF): ETFs are investment funds traded on stock exchanges, much like stocks. They are considered financial instruments.

Motor vehicles: Motor vehicles are tangible assets, not financial instruments.

Currency swap: A currency swap is a financial derivative used to manage exposure to exchange rate fluctuations and is considered a financial instrument.

Source:Indian Economy Handbook- Financial Market

85. With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 

A. Only one 
B. Only two 
C. Only three 
D. All four 

Ans: B

Subject: Economy

Solution:

Storage of agricultural produce: This is part of the tertiary sector, as it involves services related to the distribution and storage of goods, not the transformation of raw materials (incorrectly matched).

Dairy farm: This is part of the primary sector, which involves agriculture and livestock production (correctly matched).

Mineral exploration: This is also part of the primary sector as it involves extraction activities (incorrectly matched).

Weaving cloth: This is part of the secondary sector, which involves manufacturing and processing raw materials into finished goods (correctly matched).

Source: Basic definition of sectors.

86. Consider the following materials: 

1. Agricultural residues 
2. Corn grain 
3. Wastewater treatment sludge 
4. Wood mill waste 

Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel? 

A. 1 and 2 only 
B. 3 and 4 only 
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 
D. 1, 3 and 4 only 

Ans: C

Subject: Environment/Economy

Solution:

Agricultural residues: These can be used to produce biofuels, including sustainable aviation fuel (SAF).

Corn grain: This can be fermented and processed to produce ethanol, which can be converted into SAF.

Wastewater treatment sludge: This can be processed to produce biogas or bio-oil, which can be upgraded to SAF.

Wood mill waste: This lignocellulosic biomass can be converted into biofuels, including SAF.

Therefore, all four materials (agricultural residues, corn grain, wastewater treatment sludge, and wood mill waste) can be used as feedstock for producing sustainable aviation fuel.

Source: NCERT

https://www.energy.gov/eere/bioenergy/sustainable-aviation-fuels

87. With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? 

A. Only one 
B. Only two 
C. Only three 
D. All four 

Ans: B

Subject: Economy

Solution: Farmer's plough: This is fixed capital because it is a durable good used in the production process over several years.

Computer: This is correctly categorized as fixed capital, as it is a long-term asset used in production.

Yarn used by the weaver: This is working capital, as it is a raw material used up in the production process.

Petrol: This is correctly categorized as working capital because it is consumed in the course of production.

Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched (Computer - Fixed capital and Petrol - Working capital).

Source: NCERT - Durable & non-durable goods.

88. Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote "an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items"? 

A. Big data analytics 
B. Cryptography 
C. Metaverse 
D. Virtual matrix 

Ans: C

Subject: Science and Technology

Solution: The term "Metaverse" refers to an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users. In the Metaverse, users can interact, socialize, and exert property rights over virtual items, often facilitated by blockchain technology and digital assets.

Source: Metaverse has been in news since 2020.

Link: https://about.meta.com/what-is-the-metaverse/

89. With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements: 

1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India. 
2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

A. 1 only 
B. 2 only 
C. Both 1 and 2 
D. Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: D

Subject: Economy

Solution:

Minimum capital requirement: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) mandates a minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India. This is a regulatory measure to ensure financial stability and solvency.

Board members: RBI guidelines for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, state that not less than 50 per cent directors should be Indian nationals/NRIs/PIOs subject to the condition that one-third of the directors are Indian nationals resident in India.

Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.

Source: https://m.rbi.org.in/Scripts/bs_viewcontent.aspx?Id=2758

90. With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements: 

1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities. 
2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

A. 1 only 
B. 2 only 
C. Both 1 and 2 
D. Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: A

Subject: Economy

Solution:

Expenditures benefiting the company directly or its employees: CSR rules in India indeed specify that expenditures that directly benefit the company or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities. The focus of CSR is on activities that contribute to the welfare of society at large.

Minimum spending on CSR activities: The CSR rules in India do specify a minimum spending requirement. Companies meeting certain criteria must spend at least 2% of their average net profits made during the three immediately preceding financial years on CSR activities.

Therefore, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.

Source: https://www.mca.gov.in/mca/html/mcav2_en/home/home/efacilitaion+center/faq+on+csr+cell-site+area/faq+on+csr+cell.html

91. With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements: 

1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors. 
2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts. 
3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

A. 1 and 2 only 
B. 2 and 3 only 
C. 1 and 3 only 
D. 1, 2 and 3 

Ans: B

Subject: Science and tech

Solution: RTGs are miniature fission reactors: This statement is incorrect. RTGs are not fission reactors; they generate electricity through the natural decay of radioactive isotopes, not through nuclear fission.

RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts: This statement is correct. RTGs have been used in numerous space missions to provide a reliable power source for spacecraft, especially in environments where solar power is not feasible.

RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development: This statement is correct. Plutonium-238 is a commonly used isotope in RTGs and can be produced as a by-product of nuclear reactors used for weapons development.

Source: https://science.nasa.gov/mission/cassini/radioisotope-thermoelectric-generator/

92. Consider the following statements: 

Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars. 

Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I 
C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 
D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct 

Ans: D

Subject: Science and Tech

Solution: Statement-I: Giant stars do not live longer than dwarf stars. In fact, giant stars have much shorter lifespans compared to dwarf stars. This is because giant stars burn their nuclear fuel at a much faster rate.

• Statement-II: This statement is correct. Giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions compared to dwarf stars. The high rate of nuclear reactions in giant stars causes them to burn through their fuel more quickly, leading to a shorter lifespan.

Therefore, Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Source: https://solarsystem.nasa.gov/genesismission/gm2/mission/pdf/Giantstars.pdf

93. Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow? 

A. Nitric oxide 
B. Nitrous oxide 
C. Nitrogen dioxide 
D. Nitrogen pentoxide 

Ans: A

Subject: Science and tech

Solution: Nitric oxide (NO) is a molecule synthesized in the human body that plays a crucial role in vasodilation, the widening of blood vessels. It is produced by endothelial cells lining the blood vessels and helps to increase blood flow and lower blood pressure by relaxing the smooth muscles of the blood vessels.

Source: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC6164974/

94. Consider the following activities: 

1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft 
2. Monitoring of precipitation 
3. Tracking the migration of animals 

In how many of the above activities can the radars be used? 

A. Only one 
B. Only two 
C. All three 
D. None 

Ans: C (Controversial)

Subject: Science and tech

Solution:
Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft: This activity typically involves the use of advanced imaging technologies, such as X-ray scanners and millimeter-wave scanners, rather than traditional radar.

Monitoring of precipitation: Radars are widely used in meteorology to monitor precipitation. Weather radars can detect the intensity, movement, and type of precipitation.

Tracking the migration of animals: Radars, especially specialized ones like marine radar and certain types of wildlife tracking radar, can be used to track the movement of birds and other large animals during migration.

Therefore, radars can definitely be used in two of the above activities (monitoring of precipitation and tracking the migration of animals). But as the key word mentioned is "can" so it's you could say that even if not directly used, radars can be used for this purpose.

95. Consider the following aircraft: 

1. Rafael 
2. MiG-29 
3. Tejas MK-1 

How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft? 

A. Only one 
B. Only two 
C. All three 
D. None 

Ans: D

Subject: Science and Tech

Solution: Explanation:

• Rafael (Rafale): The Dassault Rafale is a 4.5 generation fighter aircraft.
• MiG-29: The Mikoyan MiG-29 is a fourth-generation fighter aircraft.
• Tejas MK-1: The HAL Tejas MK-1 is a 4+ generation fighter aircraft.

Source: Rafale was in news, HAL AMCA was in news

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/india-indigenous-fifth-gen-fighter-jet-amca-9204814/

96. In which of the following are hydrogels used? 

1. Controlled drug delivery in patients 
2. Mobile air-conditioning systems 
3. Preparation of industrial lubricants 

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

A. 1 only 
B. 1 and 2 only 
C. 2 and 3 only 
D. 1, 2 and 3 

Ans: D

Subject: Science and tech

Solution: Controlled drug delivery in patients: Hydrogels are widely used in biomedical applications, including controlled drug delivery systems. They can encapsulate drugs and release them at a controlled rate.

Mobile air-conditioning systems: Hydrogels are not typically used in mobile air-conditioning systems. These systems generally rely on refrigerants and mechanical components for cooling.

Preparation of industrial lubricants: Hydrogels are not commonly used in the preparation of industrial lubricants. Industrial lubricants are typically made from oils and other chemical additives designed to reduce friction and wear.

Source: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC6384686/,https://coolingvest.co.uk/index.php?route=information/information&information_id=18,
https://www.mdpi.com/2504-5377/4/4/54,

97. Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen? 

A. Hydrogen peroxide 
B. Hydronium 
C. Oxygen 
D. Water vapour 

Ans: D

Subject: Science and Tech

Solution: Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles (FCEVs) powered by hydrogen produce electricity through a chemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen. The primary by-product of this reaction is water, which is expelled as water vapour through the exhaust.

Source: https://afdc.energy.gov/vehicles/fuel-cell

98. Recently, the term "pumped-storage hydropower" is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following? 

A. Irrigation of terraced crop fields 
B. Lift irrigation of cereal crops 
C. Long duration energy storage 
D. Rainwater harvesting system 

Ans: C

Subject: Science and Tech

Solution: Pumped-storage hydropower is a type of hydroelectric energy storage used for long duration energy storage. It involves pumping water from a lower elevation reservoir to a higher elevation during periods of low energy demand or excess energy production, and then releasing it back down to generate electricity during periods of high energy demand.

Source: https://www.energy.gov/eere/water/pumped-storage-hydropower

99. "Membrane Bioreactors" are often discussed in the context of: 

A. Assisted reproductive technologies 
B. Drug delivery nanotechnologies 
C. Vaccine production technologies 
D. Wastewater treatment technologies 

Ans: D

Subject: Science and tech

Solution:  Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs) are advanced wastewater treatment systems that combine a membrane filtration process with a biological treatment process. They are highly effective in removing contaminants from wastewater, making them a popular choice for treating municipal and industrial wastewater.

Source: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4931528/

100. With reference to the Indian economy, "Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations are the instruments of: 

A. Bond market 
B. Forex market
C. Money market 
D. Stock market 

Ans: C

Subject: Economy

Solution: Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations (CBLO) are short-term instruments in the money market. They facilitate borrowing and lending of funds with securities as collateral, providing a secured means for banks and financial institutions to manage liquidity.

Source: https://rbi.org.in/Scripts/BS_CircularIndexDisplay.aspx?Id=2388