UPSC Prelims CSAT 2021 Question Paper and Solutions

Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

With respect to what are called denominations of religion, if everyone is left to be a judge of his own religion, there is no such things as religion that is wrong; but if they are to be a judge of each other’s religion, there is no such thing as a religion that is right, and therefore all the world is right or all the world is wrong in the matter of religion.

Q.1. What is the most logical assumption that can be made from the passage given above?

(a) No man can live without adhering to some religious denomination.

(b) It is the duty of everyone to propagate one’s religious denomination.

(d) Men do not understand their own religious denomination.

Ans. (c)

Solution:

(a) Incorrect - The passage does not comment on the necessity of belonging to a religious denomination for survival.

(b) Incorrect - There is no mention of a duty to spread one’s religious beliefs.

(c) Correct - The assumption that "Religious denominations tend to overlook the unity of humanity" supports the central argument that judging others' religions can lead to all religions being seen as wrong.

(d) Incorrect - The assumption should ideally be that people fail to understand others’ religious denominations, not necessarily their own.

Passage – 2

It is certain, that seditions, wars, and contempt or breach of the laws are not so much to be imputed to the wickedness of the subjects, as to the bad state of a dominion. For men are not born fit for citizenship but must be made so. Besides, men’s natural passions are everywhere the same; and if wickedness more prevails, and more offences are committed in one commonwealth than in another, it is certain that the former has neither enough pursued the end of unity, nor framed its laws with sufficient forethought; and that, therefore, it has failed in making quite good its right as a commonwealth.

Q.2. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage given above?

(a) Seditions, wars, and breach of the laws are inevitable in every dominion.

(b) It is not the people, but the sovereign who is responsible for all the problems of any dominion.

(d) It is impossible for men to establish a good dominion.

Ans. (c)

Solution:

(a) Incorrect - The passage does not assert that problems like wars and sedition are unavoidable.

(b) Incorrect - It is overly simplistic to blame the sovereign alone for all problems in a state.

(c) Correct - The inference that a state with well-thought-out laws and a focus on unity is ideal, is directly supported by the passage.

(d) Incorrect - The passage does not suggest that establishing a good government is unachievable, only that it requires proper preparation and education.

Passage – 3

Inequality violates a basic democratic norm: the equal standing of citizens. Equality is a relation that obtains between persons in respect of some fundamental characteristic that they share in common. Equality is, morally speaking, a default principle. Therefore, persons should not be discriminated on grounds such as race, caste, gender, ethnicity, disability, or class. These features of human condition are morally irrelevant. The idea that one should treat persons with respect not only because some of these persons some special features or talent, for example skilled cricketers, gifted musicians, or literary giants, but because persons are human being, is by now part of commonsense morality.

Q.3. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Equality is a prerequisite for people to participate in the multiple transactions of society from a position of confidence.

2. Occurrence of inequality is detrimental to the survival of democracy.

3. Equal standing of all citizens is an idea that cannot actually be realised even in a democracy.

4. Right to equality should be incorporated into our values and day-to-day political vocabulary.

Which of the above assumptions are valid?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Solution:

(a) Correct - Equality is essential for individuals to confidently participate in societal transactions.

(b) Incorrect - The passage does not imply that inequality threatens the existence of democracy itself, merely that it violates its principles.

(c) Incorrect - The passage suggests that achieving complete equality is a moral goal, not an unreachable ideal.

(d) Correct - Incorporating the right to equality into everyday values and political discourse supports the overarching moral argument of the passage.

Passage – 4

Aristocratic government ruins itself by limiting too narrowly the circle within which power is confined; oligarchic government ruins itself by the incautious scramble for immediate wealth. But even democracy ruins itself by excess of democracy. Its basic principle is the equal right of all to hold office and determine public policy. This is, at first glance, a delightful arrangement; it becomes disastrous because the people are not properly equipped by education to select the best rulers and the wisest courses. The people have no understanding and only repeat what their rulers are pleased to tell them. Such a democracy is tyranny or autocracy. – Plato

Q.4. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage given above?

(a) Human societies experiment with different forms of governments.

(b) Any form of government tends to deteriorate by excess of its basic principle.

(d) Having a government is a necessary evil because tyranny is inherent in any form of government.

Ans. (b)

Solution:

Crux is the most important or difficult part of a problem i.e. main point of the passage that is explicitly stated by the author.

Option (a) is incorrect: Although this can be inferred from the passage, it is not explicitly stated by the author. Hence, we can rule this option out.

Option (b) is correct because author explicitly mentions "even democracy ruins itself by excess of democracy" and previously described other forms of government through their excesses.

Option (c) is incorrect because it is too far fetched/speculative.

Option (d) is incorrect because it is an extreme statement and when we test the statement against the passage, it fails to capture the main message/point of the passage.

Q.5 In a group of 120 persons, 80 are Indians and rest are foreigners. Further, 70 persons in the group can speak English. The number of Indians who can speak English is

(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 30 or less
(d) 30 or more

Ans. (d)

Solution:

This is one of the easiest questions in this paper and could be solved mentally, check below -

Out of 120 persons, 80 are Indians and 40 are foreigners. - (i)
Out of 120 persons, 70 can speak English, and 50 cannot speak English. - (ii)

To maximise Indians who can speak English, we can assume all can speak English but the maximum possible number of Indians who can speak English is 70 because (ii) clearly states that only 70 can speak English. Hence, all the 70 English-speaking people are Indians.

To minimise number of Indians who can speak English, we assume all 40 Foreigners can speak English. Now, only 30 Indians (total 70 - 40 Foreigners) can speak English.

So, English-speaking Indians will be between 30 to 70.

Q.6. Consider all 3-digit numbers (without repetition of digits) obtained using three non-zero digits which are multiples of 3. Let S be their sum.

Which of the following is/are correct?

1. S is always divisible by 74.

2. S is always divisible by 9.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)

Solution:

This question looks like difficult logic based but is instead calculation intensive.

There are only three non-zero digits which are multiples of 3: 3, 6, and 9.

Since repetition of digits is not allowed, Using these 3 digits, we can make 3P2 or 3!, i.e. 6 three-digit numbers.

369 396 639 693 936 963

So their sum, S = 369 + 396 + 639 + 693 + 936 + 963 = 3996

We can check that, S is divisible by both 74 and 9 using any division technique.

Q.7. There are two Classes A and B having 25 and 30 students respectively. In Class-A the highest score is 21 and lowest score is 17. In Class-B the highest score is 30 and lowest score is 22. Four students are shifted from Class-A to Class-B.

Consider the following statements:

1. The average score of Class-B will definitely decrease.

2. The average score of Class-A will definitely increase.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

Solution:

This is one of the easiest questions in this paper and could be solved mentally, check below -

In case of averages, addition of items below average decreases it and adding items above average increases it. Lowest score of Class-B Student is higher than highest score of Class-A student. Therefore, any movement of student from A to B will lead to decrease in average. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

However, we don't know if marks of the 4 students that have been moved from class A are above or below the average. If above average, will lead to decrease in the average marks of Class A. If they have marks close to 17 ie below average, it will lead to increase in the average marks of Class A. Therefore, we cannot determine whether "definite" or confirmed increase happens. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

Q.8. Consider two Statements and a Question:

Statement-1: Priya is 4 ranks below Seema and is 31st from the bottom.
Statement-2: Ena is 2 ranks above Seema and is 37th from the bottom.

Question: What is Seema’s rank from the top in the class of 40 students?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question?

(a) Statement-1 alone is not sufficient to answer the Question

(b) Statement-2 alone is not sufficient to answer the Question

(d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to answer the Question

Ans. (c)

Solution:

Since, total number of students is given, From Statement 1, we get that Priya is 10th from Top (Rank from Top + Rank from Bottom = Total Positions + 1)

From Statement 2, we get that Ena is 4th from Top

Similarly, Seema’s rank from the top can be calculated using either of the statements. Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q.9. Consider two Statements and a Question:

Statement-1: Each of A and D is heavier than each of B, E and F, but none of them is the heaviest.
Statement-2: A is heavier than D, but is lighter than C.

Question: Who is the heaviest among A, B, C, D and E?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question?

(a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(d) Neither Statement-1 alone nor Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

Ans. (c) or (d) (as per UPSC Official key)

Solution:

Statement 1 mentions A & D are not the heaviest (in the entire set). But among a smaller set, any of the two could be heavier than other and all others.

A > B, E & F D > B, E & F

But relationship between A & D is unknown, ie anyone can be heavier. so, using statement 1 alone we cannot determine the heaviest item

Statement 2 gives C > A > D

So, using statement 2 alone also we cannot determine the heaviest item.

But, using both statements we can solve easily as the unknown relationship between A & D gets defined along with the missing letter C, so we have C > A > D > B, E & F. So, C is heaviest.

So, both options (c) and (d) are correct.

Q.10. In the English alphabet, the first 4 letters are written in opposite order, and the next 4 letters are written in opposite order and so on; and at the end Y and Z are interchanged. Which will be the fourth letter to the right of the 13th letter?

(a) N
(b) T
(c) H
(d) I

Ans. (b)

Solution:

Method 1: The English alphabet is: ABCD EFGH IJKL MNOP QRST UVWX YZ

As per the question, the letters are arranged as follows:
DCBA HGFE LKJI PONM TSRQ XWVU ZY

13th letter in this arrangement is P.

And the 4th letter to its right is T.

Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

India faces a challenging immediate future in energy and climate policy-making. The problems are multiple : sputtering fossil fuel production capability; limited access to electricity and modern cooking fuel for the poorest; rising fuel imports in an unstable global energy context; continued electricity pricing and governance challenges leading to its costly deficits or surplus supply; and not least, growing environmental contestation around land, water and air. But all is not bleak: growing energy efficiency programmes; integrated urbanisation and transport policy discussions; inroads to enhancing energy access and security; and bold renewable energy initiatives, even if not fully conceptualized, suggest the promise of transformation.

Q.11. Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage given above?

(a) India’s energy decision-making process is ever more complex and interconnected.

(b) India’s energy and climate policy is heavily tuned to sustainable development goals.

(d) India’s energy decision-making process is straightforward supply-oriented and ignores the demand side.

Ans. (a)

Solution:

Critical message (similar to crux) is the most important or main point of the passage that is explicitly stated by the author.

Option (a) is correct because the passage talks about the multiple problems and integrated urbanisation and transport policy discussions with energy initiatives indicating clearly that decision-making process is ever more complex and interconnected.

Option (b) is incorrect as it is an extreme statement. Red Flag word - "heavily". The passage mentions "all is not bleak" which doesn't support "heavily tuned" type phrase. When we test the statement against the passage, it fails to capture the main message/point of the passage.

Option (c) is incorrect. It is speculative as passage doesn't talk about social goals.

Option (d) is incorrect because it is also speculating about demand supply not discussed explicitly by the author.

Passage – 2

There are reports that some of the antibiotics sold in the market are fed to poultry and other livestock as growth promoters. Overusing these substances can create superbugs, pathogens that are resistant to multiple drugs and could be passed along humans. Mindful of that, some farming companies have stopped using the drugs to make chickens gain weight faster. Since Denmark banned antibiotic growth promoters in the 1990s, the major pork exporters says it is producing more pigs – and the animals get fewer diseases.

Q.12. Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage given above ?

(a) People should avoid consuming the products of animal farming.

(b) Foods of animal origin should be replaced with foods of plant origin.

(d) Antibiotics should only be used to treat diseases.

Ans. (d)

Solution:

Option (a) is incorrect as it is speculative. Passage doesn't suggest avoiding consumption explicitly.

Option (b) is incorrect as it is far fetched.

Option (c) is incorrect as banning is not suggested by the author rather he appreciates mindfulness of companies who stopped using it. So, this "banning" idea is out of scope and can be ruled out as the critical message or crux of the passage.

Option (d) is correct as author mentions antibiotics used as growth promoters and how some farming companies stopped using it to make chickens gain weight faster i.e. by corollary only use as a drug to treat diseases.

Passage – 3

Policy makers and media have placed the blame for skyrocketing food prices on a variety of factors, including high fuel prices, bad weather in key food producing countries, and the diversion of land to non-food production. Increased emphasis, however, has been placed on a surge in demand for food from the most populous emerging economies. It seems highly probable that mass consumption in these countries could be well poised to create a food crisis.

Q.13. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Oil producing countries are one of the reasons for high food prices.

2. If there is a food crisis in the world in the near future, it will be in the emerging economies.

Which of the above statements is/are valid?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (d)

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The passage only mentions that high fuel prices as the reason. It fails the negation test also as Oil prices can rise despite involvement of Oil producing countries. Moreover, there are other fuels besides oil. So, it is not a valid assumption.

Statement 2 is incorrect as the passage premise is about general food price hike and we can't have a specific assumption about emerging economies which weakens the conclusion rather than support it.

Hence, option (d) is correct answer.

Passage – 4

A central message of modern development economics is the importance of income growth, by which is meant growth in Gross Domestic Product (GDP). In theory, rising GDP creates employment and investment opportunities. As incomes grow in a country where the level of GDP was once low, households, communities, and governments are increasingly able to set aside some funds for the production of things that make for a good life. Today GDP has assumed such a significant place in the development lexicon, that if someone mentions “economic growth”, we know they mean growth in GDP.

Q.14. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Rising GDP is essential for a country to be a developed country.

2. Rising GDP guarantees a reasonable distribution of income to all households.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (d)

Solution:

Both the statements have included speculative elements and do not support the premise of "Dominance of GDP in development economics" and reasons explaining this premise. Hence, can be ruled out as valid assumptions.

Using negation test also, we can test both statements. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q.15. Seven books P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are placed side by side. R, Q and T have blue covers and other books have red covers. Only S and U are new books and the rest are old. P, R and S are law reports; the rest are Gazetteers. Books of old Gazetteers with blue covers are

(a) Q and R
(b) Q and U
(c) Q and T
(d) T and U

Ans. (c)

Solution:

Draw a table to compactly summarise the data or solve directly using the below deductions to save time -

1. Shortlist Blue covers, ie R, Q & T
2. Old - P Q R T & Gazetteers - Q T U, So old Gazetteers - Q T
3. Common Books - Q & T

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q.16. Replace the incorrect term by the correct term in the given sequence

3, 2, 7, 4, 13, 10, 21, 18, 31, 28, 43, 40

where odd terms and even terms follow the same pattern.

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 6

Ans. (a)

Solution:

On separating the Odd and the Even Series, we observe the following pattern:

ODD SERIES - 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, 43 - Gaps of 4,6,8,10,12 - series is proper

EVEN SERIES - 2, 4, 10, 18, 28, 40 - Gaps of 2,6,8,10,12 - replacement of first term by 0 will make it consistent, therefore option (a) is the correct answer.

Q.17. Following is a matrix of certain entries. The entries follow a certain trend row-wise. Choose the missing entry (?) accordingly.

7B 10A 3C

3C 9B 6A

10A 13C ?

(a) 9B
(b) 3A
(c) 3B
(d) 3C

Ans. (c)

Solution:

From one row to another, the letters shift in a cyclic manner, i.e. BAC to CBA to ACB.

As far as the numbers are concerned, the pattern has been depicted below:

So, the required alpha-numeric term is 3B.

Q.18. You are given two identical sequences in two rows:

Sequence I 8 4 6 15 52.5 236.5

Sequence II 5 A B C D E

What is the entry in the place of C for the Sequence-II?

(a) 2.5
(b) 5
(c) 9.375
(d) 32.8125

Ans. (c)

Solution:

Sequence 1
8 × 0.5 = 4
4 × 1.5 = 6
6 × 2.5 = 15
15 × 3.5 = 52.5
52.5 × 4.5 = 236.25

Sequence 2
5 × 0.5 = 2.5 (A)
2.5 × 1.5 = 3.75 (B)
3.75 × 2.5 = 9.375 (C)

Q.19. A person X from a place A and another person Y from a place B set out at the same time to walk towards each other. The places are separated by a distance of 15 km. X walks with a uniform speed of 1.5 km/hr and Y walks with a uniform speed of 1 km/hr in the first hour, with a uniform speed of 1.25 km/hr in the second hour and with a uniform speed of 1.5 km/hr in the third hour and so on.

Which of the following is/are correct?

1. They take 5 hours to meet.

2. They meet midway between A and B.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)

Solution:

Method 1: Very simple question and can be solved without pen and paper. Just assume both statements to be true and check their validity.

Distance between places A and B = 15 km and they meet midway so each covers 7.5 km distance.
Speed of X = 1.5 km/hr, so time taken = 7.5/1.5 = 5 hrs

Check if B can successfully cover 7.5 km in 5 hours. If yes, we have validated both statements by reverse logic.

Average speed of B = Mid value of 5 speeds with equal time slots - 1, 1.25, 1.5, 1.75, 2 = 1.5 km/hr

Method 2: Distance covered by X in 5 hours = 7.5 km

Speed of Y in 1st hour = 1 km/hr
So, Distance covered by Y in 1st hour = 1 km

Similarly, Distance covered by Y in 2nd hour = 1.25 km

Distance covered by Y in 3rd hour = 1.5 km
Distance covered by Y in 4th hour = 1.75 km
Distance covered by Y in 5th hour = 2 km

So, the total distance covered by Y in 5 hours = 1 + 1.25 + 1.5 + 1.75 + 2 = 7.5 km

Hence, both the given statements are true.

Q.20. A student appeared in 6 papers. The maximum marks are the same for each paper. His marks in these papers are in the proportion 5 : 6 : 7 : 8 : 9 : 10. Overall he scored 60%. In how many number of papers did he score less than 60% of the maximum marks?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Ans. (b)

Solution:

Method 1: No need of calculation, this question tests your basic logic.

Average marks is given and since all marks are unique (their proportions are given in increasing order), half would be below the average and half above it. so, 3 is our answer.

Method 2: Let total marks in each subject be 100. Total marks for all 6 subjects = 600

Overall marks scored = 60% of 600 = 360
Assuming the marks as per proportion and adding we get

5x + 6x + 7x + 8x + 9x + 10x = 360
=> 45x = 360 => x = 8

So, marks in the given 6 subjects -
5 × 8 = 40
6 × 8 = 48
7 × 8 = 56
8 × 8 = 64
9 × 8 = 72
10 × 8 = 80

Hence, in 3 subjects, the student has scored less than 60% marks.

Passage – 1

Fig trees (genus Ficus) are considered sacred in India, East Asia and Africa and are common in agricultural and urban landscapes where other large trees are absent. In natural forests, fig trees provide food for wildlife when other resources are scarce and support a high density and diversity of frugivores (fruit-eating animals). If frugivorous birds and bats continue to visit to fig trees located in sites with high human disturbances, sacred fig trees may promote frugivore abundance. Under a favourable microclimate, plenty of seedlings of other tree species would grow around fig trees.

Q.21. On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumption have been made:

1. Fig trees can often be keystone species in natural forests.

2. Fig trees can grow where other large woody species cannot grow.

3. Sacred trees can have a role in biodiversity conservation.

4. Fig trees have a role in the seed dispersal of other tree species.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (d)

Solution:

Statement 1 is valid assumption - The passage mentions fig trees providing food for wildlife species and supporting a density and diversity of frugivores where resources are scarce and absent in natural forests. Hence, negating this statement will render this above line false. so, it is valid assumption.

Statement 2 is not a valid assumption - It can be an inference drawn from the passage that fig trees can grow where others are absent. However, negating this statement, also doesn't invalidate any statement made in the passage by the author. Hence, statement 2 is not a valid assumption.

Statement 3 is a valid assumption - The passage mentions biodiversity prevailing around fig trees in the form of frugivores, bats, animals, and humans living in co-existence. Hence, the third statement holds as a valid assumption.

Statement 4 is a valid assumption - The line provides a link between the lines "frugivorous birds and bats continue to visit..." and "plenty of seedlings of other tree species". Hence, it is a valid assumption.

Passage – 2

At the heart of agroecology is the idea that agroecosystems should mimic the biodiversity levels and functioning of natural ecosystems. Such agricultural mimics, like their natural models, can be productive, pest-resistant, nutrient conserving, and resilient to shocks and stresses. In ecosystems there is no ‘waste’, nutrients are recycled indefinitely. Agroecology aims at closing nutrient loops, i.e., returning all nutrients that come out of the soil back to the soil such as through application of farmyard manure. It also harnesses natural processes to control pests and build soil fertility i.e., through intercropping. Agroecological practices include integrating trees with livestock and crops.

Q.22. Consider the following:

1. Cover crops
2. Fertigation
3. Hydroponics
4. Mixed farming
5. Polyculture
6. Vertical farming

Which of the above farming practices can be compatible with agroecology, as implied by the passage?

(a) 1, 4 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only
(d) 4 and 6 only

Ans. (a)

Solution:

"implied by the passage" is same as "inferred". Agroecology focuses on natural solutions and mimicking nature. We know the following broad definitions of these words -

Fertigation is a method of fertilizer application in which fertilizer is incorporated within the irrigation water by the drip system. This is not seen in nature.

Hydroponics is the technique of growing plants using a water-based nutrient solution rather than soil. Again, not mimicking nature.

Vertical farming is the agricultural process in which crops are grown on top of each other, rather than in traditional, horizontal rows

We can remove these artificial methods and remaining options are answer ie 1, 4 and 5

Passage – 3

Computers increasingly deal not just with abstract data like credit card details and databases, but also with the real world of physical objects and vulnerable human bodies. A modern car is a computer on wheels; an aeroplane is a computer on wings. The arrival of the “Internet of Things” will see computers baked into everything from road signs and MRI scanners to prosthetics and insulin pumps. There is little evidence that these gadgets will be any more trustworthy than their desktop counterparts. Hackers have already proved that they can take remote control of internet connected cars and pacemakers.

Q.23. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most critical inference that can be made from the passage given above?

(a) Computers are not completely safe.

(b) Companies producing the software do not take cyber security seriously.

(d) The present trend of communication technologies will affect our lives in future.

Ans. (a)

Solution:

Option (a) is correct: Computers are not completely safe ie there is some vulnerability in them, can be deduced from the last two lines or the conclusion within the passage

Option (b) is incorrect: the passage is silent on companies seriousness in building software are not taking cyber security. so, this statement is speculative and cannot be deduced.

Option (c) is incorrect: Due to the rising vulnerabilities and threats of data breaches in case of hackers taking over, the need for stringent data security laws can be indirectly inferred. However, it is a fallout of the recent trends of communication technologies and their complexities which is the more critical inference of the passage.

Option (d) is incorrect: Passage's premise is related to computers and their safety concerns considering their widespread and critical usage. Communication technologies as such are not discussed and cannot be inferred. Hence Option (d) is incorrect.

Passage – 4

A social and physical environment riddled with poverty, inequities, unhygienic and insanitary conditions generates the risk of infectious diseases. Hygiene has different levels: personal, domestic and community hygiene. There is no doubt that personal cleanliness brings down the rate of infectious diseases. But the entry of the market into this domain has created a false sense of security that gets conditioned and reinforced by the onslaught of advertisements. Experience in Western Europe shows that along with personal hygiene, general improvements in environmental conditions and components like clean water, sanitation and food security have brought down infant/child death/infections rates considerably. The obsession with hand hygiene also brings in the persisting influence of the market on personal health, overriding or marginalizing the negative impact on ecology and the emergence of resistant germs.

Q.24. On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made:

1. People who are obsessed with personal hygiene tend to ignore the community hygiene.

2. Emergence of multi-drug resistant germs can be prevented by personal cleanliness.

3. Entry of the market in the domain of hygiene increases the risk of infectious diseases.

4. Scientific and micro-level interventions are not sufficient to bring down the burden of infectious diseases.

5. It is community hygiene implemented through public health measures that is really effective in the battle against infectious diseases.

Which of the above assumptions are valid?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Solution:

Statement 1 can be invalidated using negation test. Negating this statement doesn't affect the passage conclusion.

There is no mention of multi-drug resistant germs but only resistant germs and we know assumptions are more general rather than specific than original statements given. Thus, Statement 2 stands invalidated.

Statement 3 can be inferred from the passage that entry of market in hygiene undoubtedly increases the risk of infectious diseases. So, this is a valid inference and not a valid assumption Hence, Statement 3 stands as an invalid assumption.

Passage's theme of unhygienic & insanitary physical environment leading to infectious diseases despite focus on personal hygiene gets validated or strengthened by Statements 4 and 5 which can effectively serve as missing link between community hygiene/physical environment and reducing infectious diseases.

Q.25. A Statement followed by Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II is given below. You have to take the Statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the Statement, disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statement: Some cats are almirahs. Some almirahs are chairs. All chairs are tables.

Conclusion-I: Certainly some almirahs are tables.
Conclusion-II: Some cats may not be chairs.

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Only Conclusion-I
(b) Only Conclusion-II
(c) Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II
(d) Neither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II

Ans. (c)

Solution:

Conclusion-I : Since all chairs are tables, we can replace chairs in second statement with tables, now we have "some almirahs are tables". Hence, “Some almirahs are tables” is true.

Conclusion-II : using statement 1 & 2, we can ascertain that Some cats may not be chairs.

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q.26. A boy plays with a ball, and he drops it from a height of 1.5 m. Every time the ball hits the ground, it bounces back to attain a height 4/5th of the previous height. The ball does not bounce further if the previous height is less than 50 cm. What is the number of times the ball hits the ground before the ball stops bouncing?

(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7

Ans. (b)

Solution:

Given Height = 1.5 m = 1.5 × 100 cm = 150 cm

When ball hits the ground for the 1st time, its height = (4/5) × 150 = 120 cm
When ball hits the ground for the 2nd time, its height = (4/5) × 120 = 96 cm
When ball hits the ground for the 3rd time, its height = (4/5) × 96 = 76.8 cm
When ball hist the ground for the 4th time, its height = (4/5) × 76.8 = 61.44 cm
When ball hits the ground for the 5th time, its height = (4/5) × 61.44 = 49.15 cm

Since, it is given that if the previous height is less than 50 cm, the ball does not bounce further. So we can say that after the ball hits the ground for the 5th time, it doesn’t bounce back.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.27. Images of consonants of the English alphabet (Capitals) are observed in a mirror. What is the number of images of these which do not look like their original shapes?

(a) 13
(b) 14
(c) 15
(d) 16

Ans. (b)

Solution:

All the consonants of the english alphabet are:
B, C, D, F, G, H, J, K , L, M, N, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W, X, Y, Z

The consonants whose mirror images look like them are:
H, M, T, V, W, X and Y

Therefore, there are a total of 7 such consonants.

Hence,
the number of consonants whose images do not look like them = 21 – 7 = 14

Q.28. A bank employee drives 10 km towards South from her house and turns to her left and drives another 20 km. She again turns left and drives 40 km, then she turns to her right and drives for another 5 km. She again turns to her right and drives another 30 km to reach her bank where she works. What is the shortest distance between her bank and her house?

(a) 20 km
(b) 25 km
(c) 30 km
(d) 35 km

Ans. (b)

Solution:

The route taken by the bank employee has been calculated below by converting all movements in hard directions from right-left:

1 - 10 km South
2 - 20 km East
3 - 40 km North
4 - 5 km East
5 - 30 km South
Net movement = 25 km East

Hence, the shortest distance between her house and her bank is 25 km.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.29. Integers are listed from 700 to 1000. In how many integers is the sum of the digits 10?

(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9

Ans. (d)

Solution:

Here we have to find out all the integers between 700 to 1000, in which sum of the digits is 10, e.g. 703 ⟶ 7 + 0 + 3 = 10

Starting digits can be 7, 8 or 9 and require other digit sums to be 3, 2 and 1 respectively

These numbers have been listed below:
703, 712, 721, 730, 802, 811, 820, 901 and 910

Hence, there are 9 such integers in which the sum of the digits is 10.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q.30. A woman runs 12 km towards her North, then 6 km towards her South and then 8 km towards her East. In which direction is she from her starting point?

(a) An angle less than 45o South of East

(b) An angle less than 45o North of East

(d) An angle more than 45o North of East

Ans. (b)

Solution:

Net Distance traveled, 6 km towards North and 8 towards East. Since, Eastwards travel is more, angle will be less than 45 degrees (if distance is same on North and East, then angle of 45 degree is obtained)

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Directions for the following 4 (four) items :

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

Passage – 1

Researchers simulated street lighting on artificial grassland plots containing pea-aphids, sap-sucking insects, at night. These were exposed to two different types of light – a white light similar to newer commercial LED lights and an amber light similar to sodium street lamps. The low intensity amber light was shown to inhibit, rather than induce, flowering in a wild plant of the pea family which is a source of food for the pea-aphids in grasslands. The number of aphids was also significantly suppressed under the light treatment due to the limited amount of food available.

Q.31. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most critical inference that can be made from the passage given above?

(a) Low intensity light has more adverse effect on the plants as compared to high intensity light.

(b) Light pollution can have a permanent adverse impact on an ecosystem.

(d) Proper intensity of light in an ecosystem is important not only for plants but for animals too.

Ans. (b)

Solution:

Option (a) is incorrect: The passage does not compare the effects of white and amber lights. It focuses on the specific effects of amber light on the flowering of plants and the population of pea-aphids.

Option (b) is correct: The passage discusses the adverse effects of artificial lighting, particularly amber light, on the ecosystem, including its impact on plant flowering and aphid population.

Option (c) is incorrect: There is no direct comparison between the effects of white and amber lights on plant flowering mentioned in the passage. The focus is solely on the impact of amber light.

Option (d) is incorrect: While the passage discusses the adverse effects of artificial lighting, it does not suggest whether proper intensity of light would be beneficial. It focuses on the negative impacts of artificial lighting on the ecosystem.

Therefore, only Statement 2 logically follows from the passage.

Passage – 2

Approximately 80 percent of all flowering plant species are pollinated by animals, including birds and mammals, but the main pollinators are insects. Pollination is responsible for providing us with a wide variety of food, as well as many plant-derived medicines. At least one-third of the world’s agricultural crops depend upon pollination. Bees are the most dominant taxa when it comes to pollination and they are crucial to more than four hundred crops. Pollination is an essential service that is the result of intricate relationship between plants and animals, and the reduction or less of either affects the survival of both. Effective pollination requires resources, such as refuges of pristine natural vegetation.

Q.32. On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Sustainable production of India’s cereal food grains is impossible without the diversity of pollinating animals.

2. Monoculture of horticultural crops hampers the survival of insects.

3. Pollinators become scarce in cultivated areas devoid of natural vegetation.

4. Diversity in insects induces diversity of plants.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (d)

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect: It is too specific and goes beyond the general findings discussed in the passage. Assumptions should be broad and applicable to a range of scenarios, not based on specific details.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage does not discuss monoculture practices, so assuming a direct relationship between pollination and monoculture is unwarranted.

Statement 3 is correct: The passage implies that the reduction or loss of natural vegetation affects pollination, suggesting that pollinators become scarce in cultivated areas lacking natural vegetation.

Statement 4 is correct: The passage suggests that the relationship between plants and animals, including insects, is intricate and affects their survival. Thus, an assumption that diversity in insects induces diversity of plants is valid.

Therefore, option (d) is correct.

Passage – 3

A study conducted on the impacts of climate change over the Cauvery basin of Tamil Nadu using regional climate models showed an increasing trend for maximum and minimum temperatures, and a decrease in the number of rainy days. These climatic shifts will have an impact on the hydrological cycles in the region, lead to more run-off and less recharge, and affect the groundwater tables. Further, there has been an increase in the frequency of droughts in the State. This has driven farmers to increase dependency on groundwater resources to secure their crops.

Q.33. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage given above?

(a) Development of regional climate models helps in choosing climate-smart agricultural practices.

(b) Heavy dependence on groundwater resources can be reduced by adopting dry-land cropping systems.

(d) Climate changes cause the farmers to adopt unsustainable livelihoods and risky coping strategies.

Ans. (c)

Solution:

Option (a) is incorrect: The passage does not discuss climate-smart agricultural practices, so it is beyond the scope of the passage.

Option (b) is incorrect: The passage does not mention anything about adopting dry-land cropping systems, so it cannot be the main point or message of the passage.

Option (c) is correct: This statement accurately captures the main point of the passage, which discusses the adverse impacts of climate change, particularly droughts and increased groundwater abuse, on farming communities.

Option (d) is incorrect: The passage primarily focuses on the impact of climate change on agriculture and does not discuss unsustainable livelihoods.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Passage – 4

Researchers were able to use stem cells to gauge the neurotoxic effects of the environmental pollutant Bisphenol A (BPA). They used a combination of biochemical and cell-based assays to examines the gene expression profile during the differentiation of mouse embryonic stem cells upon treatment with BPA, a compound known to cause heart diseases, diabetes, and developmental abnormalities in humans. They were able to detect and measure BPA toxicity towards the proper specification of primary germ layers, such as endoderm and ectoderm, and the establishment of neural progenitor cells.

Q.34. On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made:

1. BPA may alter embryonic development in vivo.

2. Biochemical and cell-based assays are useful in finding out treatments for pollution-induced diseases.

3. Embryonic stem cells could serve as a model to evaluate the physiological effects of environmental pollutants.

Which of the above assumptions are valid?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: It can be inferred from the passage that Bisphenol A (BPA) may alter embryonic development, as indicated by the effects observed in mouse embryonic stem cells upon treatment with BPA.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While biochemical and cell-based assays are discussed in the passage, there is no explicit mention that they are useful in finding treatments for pollution-induced diseases. This statement goes beyond what is stated in the passage.

Statement 3 is correct: The passage suggests that embryonic stem cells could serve as a model to evaluate the physiological effects of environmental pollutants. This is supported by the discussion on using stem cells to study the impact of BPA exposure.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q.35. If 32019 is divided by 10, then what is the remainder?

(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 7
(d) 9

Ans. (c)

Solution:

3^1 = 3
3^2 = 9
3^3 = 27
3^4 = 81
3^5 = 243
3^6 = 729

The unit place repeats after every 4 steps.

Now, when 2019 is divided by 4, the remainder is 3.

Therefore, the unit place of 3^2019 will be the same as that of 3^3, which is 7.

Hence, when 32019 is divided by 10, the remainder will be 7.

Q.36. The number 3798125P369 is divisible by 7. What is the value of the digit P?

(a) 1
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 9

Ans. (b)

Solution:

(37) (981) (25P) (369)

Then, it calculates the difference between the first two triplets and the last two triplets:
369 - 25P + 981 - 37 = 1350 - 25P - 37 = 1313 - 25P

Dividing 1313 by 7 yields a remainder of 4.

Since 25P must be in the range of 250 to 259 to maintain divisibility by 7, it checks which number in this range, when added to 4, is divisible by 7. The options are 252 and 259.

After calculating, it verifies that the resulting number, 1313 - 256, is divisible by 7.

Thus, the value of P is confirmed to be 6.

Therefore, option (b) is correct.

Q.37. From January 1, 2021, the price of petrol (in Rupees per litre) on mth day of the year is 80 + 0.1m, where m = 1, 2, 3, …, 100 and thereafter remains constant. On the other hand, the price of diesel (in Rupees per litre) on nth day of 2021 is 69 + 0.15n for any n. On which date in the year 2021 are the prices of these two fuels equal?

(a) 21st May
(b) 20th May
(c) 19th May
(d) 18th May

Ans. (b)

Solution:

Determining the price of diesel and petrol on and after the 100th day of the year, as the price of petrol remains constant after this day.

Then, it calculates the total number of days till 30th April, which is 31 (January) + 28 (February) + 31 (March) + 30 (April) = 120 days.

For each option, it computes the number of days from 1st January to the given date in May.

For option (a), which is 21st May, it adds 120 days to 21, making it 141 days. Then, it calculates the price of diesel using the given formula.

For option (b), which is 20th May, it adds 120 days to 20, making it 140 days. Then, it calculates the price of diesel using the given formula.

Based on the calculations, it concludes that the price of diesel and petrol will be equal on 20th May 2021.

Therefore, option (b) is correct.

Q.38. A biology class at high school predicted that a local population of animals will double in size every 12 years. The population at the beginning of the year 2021 was estimated to be 50 animals. If P represents the population after n years, then which one of the following equations represents the model of the class for the population?

(a) P = 12 + 50n
(b) P = 50 + 12n
(c) P = 50 (2)12n
(d) P = 50 (2)n/12

Ans. (d)

Solution:

Population is getting doubled every 12 years, and population in the year 2021 is 50 animals.

So, after 12 years it will get doubled to 100 animals.

Now, let’s check the options, where n stands for the number of years.

Option (d): P = 50 × 2n/12 = 50 × 212/12 = 50 × 2 = 100 animals.

For all other options, this value comes out to be above 100.

Q.39. In a class, 60% of students are from India and 50% of the students are girls. If 30% of the Indian students are girls, then what percentage of foreign students are boys?

(a) 45%
(b) 40%
(c) 30%
(d) 20%

Ans. (d)

Solution:

Let total number of students in the class be 100.

Indian students = 60% of 100 = 60
So, foreign students = 100 – 60 = 40 students
Total number of girls students = 50% of 100 = 50

According to the question,

Total number of Indian girl students = 30% of 60 = 18 students

So, foreign girl students = 50 – 18 = 32
As total foreign students = 40
So, foreign boy students = 40 – 32 = 8
So, percentage of boys among foreign students = (8/40) × 100 = 20%

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q.40. A Statement followed by Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II is given below. You have to take the Statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the Statement, disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statement: Some radios are mobiles. All mobiles are computers. Some computers are watches.

Conclusion-I: Certainly some radios are watches.
Conclusion-II: Certainly some mobiles are watches.

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Only Conclusion-I
(b) Only Conclusion-II
(c) Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II
(d) Neither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II

Ans. (d)

Solution:

Based on the statements provided, Conclusion-I definitely does not follow from the passages. However, Conclusion-II also does not follow. Therefore, neither of the conclusions follows from the passages.

Passage-1 talks about the historical context of exploration, highlighting the pursuit of resources as the primary motivation rather than science or curiosity. However, it doesn't mention anything about the negative consequences of this pursuit, which is essential for drawing Conclusion-I.

Similarly, while the passage emphasizes resource extraction as the driver for opening frontiers, it doesn't discuss any potential conflicts arising from this, which is necessary for drawing Conclusion-II. Therefore, both conclusions are invalid based on the information provided in the passage.

Q.41. Which one of the following statements best sums up the passage given above?

(a) Wealth generation is the primary motive for any human endeavour.

(b) Space, whether space in solar system or interstellar space, will govern our future economy.

(d) Wealth generation is based on the risk-taking behaviour of some men.

Ans. (c)

Solution:

Option (a) is indeed incorrect as the passage doesn't state that wealth generation is the primary motive for exploration; rather, it highlights it as a strong driver among others.

Option (b) is also incorrect because the passage doesn't mention anything about the future implications of economic-driven exploration.

Option (c) is correct. The passage emphasizes that throughout history, the main driver for exploration has often been the pursuit of resources, such as gold, spices, or access to markets like China.

Option (d) is incorrect because while the passage does acknowledge risk in historical exploration, it doesn't imply that wealth generation always involves risk-taking behavior.

So, option (c) is the correct choice.

Passage-2

"........ most people would agree that telling deliberate lies is wrong, except perhaps in certain special situations where more harm will be done by telling the truth. Even the most truthful people probably tell a good many more lies that might be regarded as semantic lies; their use of words contains some measure of falsehood, more or less deliberate."

Q.42. The idea which the first part of the passage mention is

(a) agreement about telling lies.

(b) disagreement about telling lies.

(d) disagreement about the harm in telling the truth.

Ans. (a)

Solution:

Option (a) is indeed correct. Since the first part of the passage is missing, we need to infer its likely topic based on the continuation. From the provided passage, it's reasonable to assume that the first part discusses the idea of agreement in telling lies, as this aligns with the subsequent discussion where individuals disagree on truth-telling.

Options (b) and (c) are incorrect because they misinterpret the focus of the first part of the passage. The passage doesn't emphasize agreement on telling lies; rather, it sets up a contrast between agreement and disagreement regarding truth-telling.

Option (d) is incorrect because it suggests that the passage agrees that telling the truth can harm people, but the passage actually discusses the disagreement on the implications of truth-telling, not a consensus about its potential harm.

So, option (a) is indeed the most accurate choice.

Q.43. Which one of the following habits is found more often in good people ?

(a) Mixing up the true and false

(b) Intentional mixing up of truth with the false.

(d) Complete concealment of truth

Ans. (b)

Solution:

Option (a) is correct

Option (b) is incorrect - The passage specifically highlights in the last line "their use of falsehood, more or less deliberate". Good people use lies more or less deliberately to reduce the harm from the truth.

Option (c) is incorrect - The passage does not argue for falsification of facts.

Option (d) is incorrect - The passage does not argue for concealing the truth.

Q.44. A pie diagram shows the percentage distribution of proteins, water and other dry elements in the human body. Given that proteins correspond to 16% and water corresponds to 70%. If both proteins and the other dry elements correspond to p%, then what is the central angle of the sector representing p on the pie diagram?

(a) 54°
(b) 96°
(c) 108°
(d) 120°

Ans. (c)

Solution:

Percentage of Other Dry Elements in the human body = 100 – (Percentage of Proteins + Percentage of Water) = 100 – (16 + 70) = 100 – 86 = 14%

The following pie-chart represents the scenario described in the question.

So, percentage of both Proteins and Other Dry Elements, i.e. p = 16 + 14 = 30%

In a pie diagram, 100% corresponds to 360o.

So, 30% will correspond to (360/100) × 30 = 108o.

That is, the central angle of the sector representing p on the pie diagram = 108o.

Q.45. Joseph visits the club on every 5th day, Harsh visits on every 24th day, while Sumit visits on every 9th day. If all three of them met at the club on a Sunday, then on which day will all three of them meet again ?

(a) Monday
(b) Wednesday
(c) Thursday
(d) Sunday

Ans. (b)

Solution:

Absolutely! The next meeting day for Joseph, Harsh, and Sumit can be determined by finding the least common multiple (LCM) of their visiting intervals. Once we find the LCM, we can determine the day of the week by considering the odd days. In this case, the LCM is 360 days, resulting in 3 odd days. Therefore, they will meet again on Wednesday.

Q.46. The difference between a 2-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of the digits is 54.

Consider the following statements:

1. The sum of the two digits of the number can be determined only if the product of the two digits is known.

2. The difference between the two digits of the number can be determined.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

Solution:

Let the number be xy, i.e. 10x + y

The number obtained on interchanging the positions of the digits will be yx, i.e. 10y + x
Difference between these two numbers = (10x + y) – (10y + x) = 9x – 9y = 9 (x – y) = 54

So, 9 (x – y) = 54
Or x – y = 6

So, statement 2 is correct.

The possible pair of such two-digit numbers are: (17, 71), (28, 82), (39, 93)
Respective product of their digits are: 1 × 7 = 7; 2 × 8 = 16; 3 × 9 = 27

So, we can determine the exact number-pair and hence the sum of their digits, if we know another relationship between the two numbers i.e. a second equation. This can either be product of their digits or Ratio of the two digits, ie. x/y.

For example, if we know x/y is 1/7 we know that the sum would be 8

So, statement 1 is not correct.

Q.47. X said to Y, "At the time of your birth I was twice as old as you are at present." If the present age of X is 42 years, then consider the following statements:

1. 8 years ago, the age of X was five times the age of Y.

2. After 14 years, the age of X would be two times the age of Y.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

Solution:

Present age of X is 42 years. Let the present age of Y be y years.

As per the question, 42 – y = 2y

Or 3y = 42
Or y = 14 years

So, at present the ages of X and Y are 42 and 14 respectively.

Statement 1: Eight years ago, the ages of X and Y must have been 34 and 6 respectively.

We can see that the age of X was not 5 times the age of Y. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

Statement 2: After fourteen years, the ages of X and Y will be 56 and 28 respectively.

We can see that the age of X would indeed be two times the age of Y. Hence, this statement is correct.

Q.48. If the price of an article is decreased by 20% and then the new price is increased by 25%, then what is the net change in the price?

(a) 0%
(b) 5% increase
(c) 5% decrease
(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

Ans. (a)

Solution:

Let the initial price be Rs. 100

New price on decreasing the original price by 20% = 100 – 20% of 100 = 100 – 20 = Rs. 80

Now, the final price on increasing the previous price by 25% = 80 + 25% of 80 = 80 + 20 = Rs. 100

Q.49. When a certain number is multiplied by 7, the product entirely comprises ones only (1111...). What is the smallest such number?

(a) 15713
(b) 15723
(c) 15783
(d) 15873

Ans. (d)

Q.50. A man completes 7/8 of a job in 21 days. How many more days will it take him to finish the job if quantum of work is further increased by 50%

(a) 24
(b) 21
(c) 18
(d) 15

Ans. (d)

Q.51. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Modern democracies rely on the market forces to enable them to be welfare states.

2. Markets ensure sufficient economic growth necessary for democracies to be effective.

3. Government programmes are needed for those left behind in economic growth.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (b)

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage mentions that "there is a built-in tension between markets and democracy." The passage further goes on to elaborate on how this tension manifests. Here, "built-in" refers to the inherent conflict between the two systems.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The last few lines of the passage invalidate the claim made in statement 2. The passage mentions that "some people never get the opportunity to develop skills that markets demand" and that "capitalism has always witnessed bursts of unemployment." Therefore, we can assume that democracies are not efficient if the market runs strong.

Statement 3 is correct: As the markets cannot ensure equity (as understood from various lines of the passage), government programs are needed to complement the market outcomes to help those who have not benefited from the "efficient distribution of resources" of the markets.

Hence, Option (b) is correct.

Passage-2

In our schools, we teach our children all that is there to know about Physics, maths and history and what-have you. But do we teach them about the bitter caste divide that plagues the country, about the spectre of famine that stalks large part of our land, about gender sensitivity, about the possibility of atheism as a choice, etc.? Equally important, do we teach them to ask question, or do we teach them only to passively receive our wisdom? From the cocooned world of school, suddenly, the adolescent finds himself/herself in the unfettered world of university. Here he/she is swept up in a turmoil of ideas and influences and ideologies. For someone who has been discouraged from asking questions and forming an opinion, this transition can be painful.

Q.52. Which one of the following best reflects the central idea of the passage given above ?

(a) School curriculum is not compatible with the expectations of children and parents.

(b) Emphasis on academic achievements does give time for development of personality and skills.

(d) To be a better citizen, the present world order demands societal and life-coping skills in addition to academic content.

Ans. (d)

Solution:

Option (a) is incorrect: The passage does not discuss the expectations of either parents or children. Therefore, this option goes beyond the scope of the passage.

Option (b) is incorrect: The passage does not delve into the allocation of time between academics and skill development activities.

Option (c) is close but incorrect: The passage does not address whose responsibility it should be to provide holistic education to children. Although it highlights that schools fail to fulfill this role adequately and that values and such education should be imparted not only at college but also at school, it does not definitively state where the ultimate responsibility should lie.

Option (d) is the best answer: The passage explicitly mentions the demands of the present world order and the significance of societal and life-coping skills alongside academic content. The present world order is referenced in lines such as "But do we teach them about the bitter caste divide that plagues the country, about the specter of famine that stalks large parts of our land, about gender sensitivity, about the possibility of atheism as a choice, etc.?".

Societal and life-coping skills are discussed, with the author questioning whether children are taught to ask questions or merely to passively receive wisdom. Additionally, the author mentions "From the cocooned world of school", aligning with the assertion made in option (d).

Q.53. There are three points P, Q and R on a straight line such that PQ:QR = 3:5. If n is the number of possible values of PQ:PR, then what is n equal to ?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Ans. (b)

Solution:

We have to arrange three points P, Q, and R on a straight line, such that PQ : QR = 3 : 5

Three points can be arranged in 3!, i.e. 6 ways.

However, the number of possible values of PQ : PR will be only 2, i.e. n = 2. They have been represented below.

Q.54. On a chess board, in how many different ways can 6 consecutive squares be chosen on the diagonals along a straight path ?

(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 12

Ans. (b)

Solution:

Here’s a typical 8 × 8 chess board:
There are two diagonals, each having 8 squares.
On one diagonal, 6 consecutive squares can be chosen in 3 ways.

So, total number of ways of choosing 6 consecutive squares on the diagonals along a straight path = 3 + 3 = 6

Q.55. In the series_b_a_ba_b_abab_aab; fill in the six blanks (_) using one of the following given four choices such that the series follows a specific order.

(a) bababa
(b) baabba
(c) bbaabb
(d) ababab

Ans. (d)

Solution:

The given series is: _b_a_ba_b_abab_aab

The pattern being followed in the above series is abb, then aab.
Again abb, and then aab, and so on.

The blanks have been highlighted below:
a b b / a a b / a b b / a ab / ab b / aab

Q.56. Using 2, 2, 3, 3, 3 as digits, how many distinct numbers greater than 30000 can be formed?

(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 12

Ans. (b)

Solution:

For the number to be greater than 30000, it must start with the digit 3. Also, as only 5 digits are given to us, all must be used.

3 _ _ _ _

The 4 blanks have to be filled by two 2’s and two 3’s.

Number of ways to do so = 4!/(2! 2!) = 6

These numbers are: 33322, 33232, 33223, 32332, 32323, and 32233.

Q.57. Consider the following statements :

1. The sum of 5 consecutive integers can be 100.

2. The product of three consecutive natural numbers can be equal to their sum.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)

Solution:

Considering statement 1:

Let the 5 consecutive numbers be x-2, x-1, x, x+1, x+2

Their sum = 5x = 100
Or x = 20
So, the numbers are 18, 19, 20, 21, and 22. Statement 1 is correct.

Considering statement 2:
We know that, 1 + 2 + 3 = 6
And 1 × 2 × 3 = 6

So, Statement 2 is correct too.

Q.58. A cubical vessel of side 1 m is filled completely with water. How many millilitres of water is contained in it (neglect thickness of the vessel) ?

(a) 1000
(b) 10000
(c) 100000
(d) 1000000

Ans. (d)

Solution:

Volume of the cube = Side × Side × Side = 1 × 1 × 1 = 1 cubic meter

Now, 1 cubic meter = 1000000 millilitres.

Q.59. There are 6 persons arranged in a row. Another person has to shake hands with 3 of them so that he should not shake hands with two consecutive persons. In how many distinct possible combinations can the handshakes take place?

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

Ans. (b)

Solution:

Method I:
We just need to choose 3 persons out of 6, such that no two of them are together.
Number of ways to choose 3 out of 6 people, without any constraints = 6C3 = (6 × 5 × 4)/(3 × 2 × 1) = 20
Number of ways to choose 3 out of 6 people, such that all of them are together = 4
Number of ways to choose 3 out of 6 people, such that two of them are together = 3 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 3 = 12

So, required answer = 20 – (4 + 12) = 4

Method II:
Let the six individuals be numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6.
So, another person can shake hands with:
1, 3, 5
1, 4, 6
1, 3, 6
2, 4, 6

Hence, he can shake hands in 4 ways.

Q.60. An amount of money was distributed among A, B and C in the ratio p : q : r.

Consider the following statements :

1. A gets the maximum share if p is greater than (q+r).

2. C gets the minimum share if r is less than (p+q).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

Solution:

Ratio of distribution of money among A, B and C is p : q : r.

Considering statement 1: If p > (q + r), then p is definitely the largest number.
So, A must have got the maximum share. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Considering statement 2: If r < (p + q), then r may or may not be the smallest number. For example, 5 < (2 + 4).
So, C may or may not have got the minimum share. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Directions for the following 2 (two) items :

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage-1

The best universities like Harvard and MIT, despite having the luxury of having some truly excellent teachers on their payroll, are increasingly embracing the "flipped classroom" format, where students listen to video lectures at home, and spend class time applying their knowledge, solving problems, discussing examples, etc. Professors guide that discussion and fill in wherever necessary, explaining those bits that seem to be eluding the students and throwing in advanced ideas that happen to be topical. These universities have made their video lectures available free for anyone in the world. They are also encouraging colleges and universities all over the world to integrate these online courses into their own pedagogy, picking the pieces that are appropriate for their needs and building a package around them.

Q.61. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage given above?

(a) Efficacy of universities would be better in online mode of conducting classroom tuition as compared conventional method.

(b) Availability of higher education can be made easier and cheaper without diluting the content.

(c) We need not invest much in infrastructure related to higher education and yet develop better human and social capital.

(d) Private sector institutions in higher education as well as coaching institutes can take advantage of this opportunity and thrive well.

Ans. (c) B

Solution:

Option (a) is incorrect: The passage does not discuss the superiority or inferiority of online education compared to conventional methods. Instead, it focuses on the luxury of universities choosing online education, without mentioning any judgment on the effectiveness of either approach.

Option (b) is incorrect: The passage does not address the pricing or accessibility of education; rather, it emphasizes the need to rethink infrastructure spending and develop a collaborative approach to education.

Option (c) is correct: The passage highlights the importance of restricting infrastructure spending, suggesting that universities should focus on supplementing existing resources rather than investing heavily in new infrastructure.

Option (d) is incorrect: The passage does not specify whether the focus is on public or private institutions; instead, it advocates for a collaborative approach to education and infrastructure development.

Passage-2

Our cities are extremely vulnerable to climate change because of large concentrations of populations and poor infrastructure. Moreover, population densities are increasing in them but we have not yet developed the systems to address climate change impacts. Our cities contribute to 65 percent of the GDP, but there are not enough facilities to cater to the needs of the people. It is important to address the issues of air quality, transport, etc., that are vital to identifying sustainable solutions. We need to involve citizens in city planning and create an ecosystem that meets the needs of people.

Q.62. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage given above ?

(a) Our cities need to have well-defined administrative set-up with sufficient autonomy.

(b) Ever increasing population densities is a hindrance in our efforts to achieve sustainable development.

(d) Public-Private Partnership mode of development is the viable long-term solution for the infrastructure and sustainability problems of India.

Ans. (c)

Solution:

Option (a) is incorrect: The passage primarily discusses the vulnerability of cities to climate change due to population concentrations and poor infrastructure, not administrative problems related to lack of autonomy.

Option (b) is incorrect: While the passage mentions increasing population densities in cities, the main focus is on their vulnerability to climate change impacts rather than administrative issues.

Option (c) is correct: The passage emphasizes the need for sustainable solutions to address issues such as air quality and transportation in cities, indicating a need for interventions that prioritize long-term environmental sustainability.

Option (d) is incorrect: Although the passage advocates for citizen involvement in city planning, it does not specifically mention the role of the private sector in addressing climate change impacts or infrastructure development.

Q.63. Jay and Vijay spent an equal amount of money to buy some pens and special pencils of the same quality from the same store. If Jay bought 3 pens and 5 pencils, and Vijay bought 2 pens and 7 pencils, then which one of the following is correct ?

(a) A pencil costs more than a pen.
(b) The price of a pencil is equal to that of a pen
(c) The price of a pen is two times the price of a pencil
(d) The price of a pen is three times the price of a pencil

Ans. (c)

Solution:

Let the price of a pen and a pencil be Rs. a, and Rs. b respectively.

As per the question, 3a + 5b = 2a + 7b
Or a = 2b

So, price of a pen is twice as that of a pencil.

Q.64. P scored 40 marks more than Q in an examination. If Q scored 10% less marks than P, then how much did Q score.

(a) 360
(b) 380
(c) 400
(d) 420

Ans. (a)

Solution:

P scored 40 marks more than Q. So, marks of Q are q, then the marks of P will be q + 40.
Q scored 10% less marks than P. That is, marks of Q are 90% of the marks of P.

So, q = 90% of (q + 40)
Or 10q = 9q + 360
Or q = 360

So, Q scored 360 marks.

Q.65. A person P asks one of his three friends X as to how much money he had. X replied, "If Y gives me Rs. 40, then Y will have half of as much as Z, but if Z gives me Rs. 40, then three of us will have equal amount." What is the total amount of money that X, Y and Z have ?

(a) Rs. 420
(b) Rs. 360
(c) Rs. 300
(d) Rs. 270

Ans. (b)

Solution:

Let the amount of money with X, Y and Z be x, y and z.

As per the question,

If Y gives me Rs. 40, then Y will have half of as much as Z.
That is, y – 40 = z/2
Or z = 2y - 80 ……(i)

If Z gives me Rs. 40, then three of us will have equal amount.
That is, x + 40 = y = z – 40
So, x = y – 40

And z = y + 40 ……(ii)

Using statements (i) and (ii), we get:

2y – 80 = y + 40
Or y = 120
So, x = y – 40 = 120 – 40 = 80
And z = y + 40 = 120 + 40 = 160

So, money with X, Y and Z will be Rs. 80, Rs. 120, and Rs. 160.

Total amount of money with X, Y and Z = x + y + z = 80 + 120 + 160 = Rs. 360

Q.66. In a code language 'MATHEMATICS' is written as 'LBSIDNZUHDR'. How is CHEMISTRY' written in that code language?

(a) DIDLHRSSX
(b) BIDNHTSSX
(c) BIDLHTSSX
(d) DGFLIRUQZ

Ans. (b)

Solution:

In a code language, 'MATHEMATICS' is written as 'LBSIDNZUHDR'.

The pattern used in the above coding is as follows:

M (13) L (12), i.e. reduction of 1
A (1) B (2), i.e. increase of 1
T (20) S (19), i.e. reduction of 1
H (8) I (9), i.e. increase of 1

And so on.

So, the code of CHEMISTRY will be: BIDNHTSSX

Q.67. At which one of the following times, do the hour hand and the minute hand of the clock make an angle of 180° with each other?

(a) At 7:00 hours
(b) Between 7:00 hours and 7:05 hours
(c) At 7:05 hours
(d) Between 7:05 hours and 7:10 hours

Ans. (d)

Solution:

Angle of 180o means that they must be directly opposite to each other.

This will happen a little time after 7:05 hours.

Q.68. In an objective type test of 90 questions, 5 marks are allotted for every correct answer and 2 marks are deducted for every wrong answer. After attempting all the 90 questions, a student got a total of 387 marks. What is the number of incorrect responses ?

(a) 9
(b) 13
(c) 27
(d) 43

Ans. (a)

Solution:

Total number of questions are 90, and 5 marks are given for every correct answer. So, maximum marks possible = 90 × 5 = 450

Now, 2 marks are deducted for every wrong answer. Essentially, it means that every incorrect answer will decrease the maximum score by 5 + 2 = 7 marks.

We know that, the student got 387 marks. So, reduction from maximum marks = 450 – 387 = 63

Hence, the number of incorrect responses = 63/7 = 9

Q.69. Consider the following addition problem : 3P+4P+PP+PP = RQ2; where P, Q and R are different digits.

What is the arithmetic mean of all such possible sums?

(a) 102
(b) 120
(c) 202
(d) 220

Ans. (c)

Solution:

3P + 4P + PP + PP = RQ2
Or 30 + P + 40 + P + 10P + P + 10P + P = 100R + 10 Q + 2
Or 24P + 70 = 100R + 10 Q + 2
Or 20P + 70 + 4P = 100R + 10 Q + 2

The unit digit of the resultant is 2. It will be obtained when 4 is multiplied by P. So, P must be 3, or 8.

If P = 3, then:
24P + 70 = 24 × 3 + 70 = 72 + 70 = 142

If P = 8, then:
24P + 70 = 24 × 8 + 70 = 192 + 70 = 262

Arithmetic sum of 142 and 262 = (142 + 262)/2 = 202

Q.70. Consider the following multiplication problem :

(PQ)×3 = RQQ, where P, Q and R are different digits and R≠ 0.

What is the value of (P+R)÷Q?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

Ans. (b)

Solution:

PQ × 3 = RQQ
Or (10P + Q) × 3 = 100R + 10Q + Q
Or 30P + 3Q = 100R + 11Q
Or 30P = 100R + 8Q

The last digit of 30P will be 0, as well as that of 100R. So, the last digit of 8Q must also be 0. So, the value of Q must be 5.

Hence, 30P = 100R + 8Q = 100R + 40

Or 3P = 10R + 4
If R = 1, then P = 14/3 (not an integer)
If R = 2, then P = 24/3 = 8
If R = 3, then P = 34/3 (not an integer, and in double digits)

So, P = 8, Q = 5, and R = 2
That is, 85 × 3 = 255

So, (P + R)/Q = (8 + 2)/5 = 10/5 = 2

Directions for the following 4 (four) items :

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage -1

Nothing can exist in a natural state which can be called good or bad by common assent, since every man who is in natural state consults only his own advantage, and determines what is good or bad according to his own fancy and insofar as he has regard for his own advantage alone, and holds himself responsible to no one save himself by any law; and therefore sin cannot be conceived in a natural state, but only a civil state, which is decreed by common consent what is good or bad, and each one holds himself responsible to the state.

Q.71. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage given above?

(a) The conceptions of what is right or wrong exist due to the formation of a state.

(b) Unless a ruling authority decides as to what is right or wrong, no man would be morally right.

(d) The idea of what is right or wrong is necessary for the survival of human species.

Ans. (a)

Solution:

Option (a) is correct: That the conceptions of what is right or wrong exist due to the formation of a state. is justified from the lines, "sin cannot be conceived in a natural state, but only a civil state, which is decreed by common consent what is good or bad, and each one holds himself responsible to the state."

Option (b) is incorrect. The author, in the lines, "sin cannot be conceived in a natural state, but only a civil state, which is decreed by common consent what is good or bad, and each one holds himself responsible to the state", refers to a state, which is civil, and not necessarily a "ruling authority" per se.

Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does strongly hint towards the fact that man is inherently selfish per se, but it does not refer to him being immoral.

Option (d) is incorrect: The passage mentions that "every man who is in natural state consults only his advantage and determines what is good or bad according to his fancy and insofar as he has regard for his advantage alone and holds himself responsible to no one save himself by any law". However, it does not connect this trait to survival. S/he connects it to the concept of sin and a civil state.

Passage-2

In the immediate future, we will see the increasing commodification of many new technologies – artificial intelligence and robotics, 3D manufacturing, custom made biological and pharmaceutical products, lethal autonomous weapons and driverless cars. This will pose conundrums. The moral question of how a driverless car will decide between hitting jaywalker and swerving and damaging the car has often been debated. The answer is both simple- save the human life- and complex. At which angle should the car swerve- just enough to save the jaywalker or more than enough? If the driverless car is in Dublin, who would take the decision ? The Irish Government, or the car’s original code writer in California, or a software programmer in Hyderabad to whom maintenance is outsourced ? If different national jurisdictions have different fine print on prioritizing a human life, how will it affect insurance and investment decisions, including transnational ones?

Q.72. Which of the following statements best reflect the rational, plausible, and practical implications that can be derived from the passage given above?

1. Too much globalization is not in the best interests of any country.

2. Modern technologies are increasingly blurring the economic borders.

3. Innovation and capital have impinged on the domain of the state.

4. Public policy of every country should focus on developing its own supply chains.

5. Geopolitics will have to reconcile to many ambiguities and uncertainties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 4 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans. (c)

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage primarily discusses the ethical and practical dilemmas posed by advancements in technology, particularly driverless cars, rather than globalization as a whole.

Statement 2 is correct: The passage raises questions about decision-making in scenarios involving driverless cars, highlighting potential conflicts between different stakeholders and jurisdictions.

Statement 3 is correct: It reinforces the complexity of decision-making in scenarios involving driverless cars and the potential implications of differing national regulations.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The passage does not provide solutions but rather poses questions and highlights the complexities of decision-making in scenarios involving driverless cars.

Statement 5 is correct: The passage delves into various moral and practical questions arising from the use of driverless cars, such as how they prioritize human life in different scenarios.

Therefore, Option (c) is correct.

Passage-3

The resolution of bankruptcy cases of Indian banks under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code should help bring non-performing assets (NPA) situation under some control. Despite the slow pace of resolution by the National Company Law Tribunal, the Code can be helpful in cleaning up bank books in future credit cycles. The recapitalization of public sector banks too can help increase the capital cushion of banks and induce them to lend more and boost economic activity. But bad debt resolution and recapitalization are only a part of the solution as they, by themselves, can do very little to rein in reckless lending that has pushed the Indian banking system to its current sorry state. Unless there are systemic reforms that address the problem of unsustainable lending, future credit cycles will continue to stress the banking system.

Q.73. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical suggestion implied by the passage given above?

(a) Lending by the banks should be closely monitored and regulated by the central Government.

(b) Interest rates should be kept low so as to induce banks to lend more, promote credit growth and thereby boost economic activity.

(c) Merger of many banks into a few large banks alone in the long-term solution to make them viable and prevent their bad performance.

(d) Indian banking system requires structural reforms as a long-term solution for bad loans problem.

Ans. (d)

Solution:

Option (a) is close but incorrect: The author refers to the need for systemic reforms for addressing the problem of unsustainable lending. Systemic reforms go much beyond the measure of simple monitoring or regulation.

Option (b) is incorrect: The author states that "Unless there are systemic reforms that address the problem of unsustainable lending, future credit cycles will continue to stress the banking system." Now, changing interest rates is a short-term measure and not a systemic improvement. Also, the author mentions recapitalization of public sector banks specifically, and not interest rate lowering, as a measure for providing capital to banks to lend. So, this measure goes beyond the scope of the passage.

Option (c) is incorrect: It is not mentioned or referred to anywhere in the passage, and hence goes beyond its scope.

Option (d) is correct: The author clearly states the need for the same in the lines, "Unless there are systemic reforms that address the problem of unsustainable lending, future credit cycles will continue to stress the banking system."

Passage-4

In India, the objective of macroeconomics policy is to enhance the economic welfare of the people, and any one wing of such macro policy, monetary or fiscal, cannot independently work without active support of another.

Q.74. Which one of the following statements best reflects the corollary to the passage given above?

(a) The central bank cannot work independently of the Government.

(b) Government should regulate financial markets and institutions closely.

(d) Financial sector reforms are required for enhancing the economic welfare of the people.

Ans. (a)

Solution:

Option (a) is correct: The passage states (read concludes) that "anyone wing of such macro policy, monetary or fiscal, cannot independently work without the active support of another." Now, the Central Bank deals with the monetary policy, while the government looks after the fiscal policy of the country. Therefore, the statement in option (a) flows as a natural corollary to the conclusion provided in the passage.

Option (b) is incorrect: Though the statement might be right in its own sphere, but it is beyond the scope of this passage.

Option (c) is incorrect: Not only is the statement in this option beyond the scope of the passage, but it is also incorrect in its own right and a very extreme one. India, which follows a mixed economy, is a classic counterexample to the assertion made in this option.

Option (d) is incorrect: To quote a standard definition, "The financial sector is a section of the economy made up of firms and institutions that provide financial services to commercial and retail customers. This sector comprises a broad range of industries including banks, investment companies, insurance companies, and real estate firms." The passage does not discuss financial sector reforms. Rather, it deals with the macroeconomic framework of monetary and fiscal policies, of which, the financial sector is just one (relatively) small aspect.

Q.75. Consider the following Table :

Who is the fastest run scorer in the Test Match ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Ans. (b)

Solution:

Fastest run scorer means the batsman that has the best runs scored : balls faced ratio.

For batsman A: Runs scored: Balls faced = 75/175 = 0.43
For batsman B: Runs scored: Balls faced = 55/97 = 0.57
For batsman C: Runs scored: Balls faced = 35/125 = 0.28
For batsman D: Runs scored: Balls faced = 25/105 = 0.24

The best ratio is that of batsman B.

Q.76. Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One-fifth of the villagers cultivate paddy. One-third of the villagers are literate. Four-fifth of the villagers are under 25 years of age. Which one of the following statements is certainly correct?

(a) All the villagers who have their own houses are literate.

(b) Some villagers under 25 years of age are literate.

(d) No villager under 25 years of age has his own house.

Ans. (b)

Solution:

50% of the villagers have their own house.
20% of the villagers cultivate paddy.
33.33% of the villagers are literate.
80% of the villagers are under 25 years of age.

Now, as 80% of the villagers are under 25 years of age, and 33.33% of the villagers are literate, so at least some of the villagers under 25 years of age must be literate.

Q.77. Consider two Statements and a Question :

Statement-1: The last day of the month is a Wednesday.
Statement 2: The third Saturday of the month was the seventeenth day.

Question: What day is the fourteenth of the given month?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question ?

(a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to the answer of the Question

(b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(d) Neither Statement-1 alone nor Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

Ans. (b)

Solution:

Considering statement 1: The last day of the month is a Wednesday. However, we do not know the number of days in the month, so we cannot find the day on the 14th of that month.

Hence, statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Considering statement 2: 17th of that month is the third Saturday. So, 14th of that month must be a Wednesday.

Hence, statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Q.78. Which day is 10th October, 2027 ?

(a) Sunday
(b) Monday
(c) Tuesday
(d) Saturday

Ans. (a)

Solution:

We know that, 10th October 2021 is a Sunday. (The day of UPSC CSE, 2021 Preliminary exam)

So, 10th October 2022 will be Sunday + 1, i.e. Monday.
10th October 2023 will be Monday + 1, i.e. Tuesday.

10th October 2024 will be Tuesday + 2, i.e. Thursday.
We added 2, as 2024 is a leap year.

10th October 2025 will be Thursday + 1, i.e. Friday.
10th October 2026 will be Friday + 1, i.e. Saturday.

10th October 2027 will be Saturday + 1, i.e. Sunday.

Q.79. Consider two Statements and four Conclusions given below. You have to take the Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the Statements, disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statement 1: Some greens are blues.
Statement 2: Some blues are blacks.

Conclusion-1: Some greens are blacks.
Conclusion-2: No green is black.
Conclusion-3: All greens are blacks.
Conclusion 4: All blacks are greens.

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Conclusion-1 and Conclusion-2 only
(b) Conclusion-2 and Conclusion-3 only
(c) Conclusion-3 and Conclusion-4 only
(d) Neither Conclusion 1 nor 2 nor 3 nor 4

Ans. (d)

Solution:

The statements can be represented in the form of Venn diagrams, as follows:

Conclusion 1: Some greens are blacks - Not necessary. So, this conclusion is incorrect.
Conclusion 2: No green is black - Not necessary. So, this conclusion is incorrect.
Conclusion 3: All greens are blacks - Not necessary. So, this conclusion is incorrect.
Conclusion 4: All blacks are greens - Not necessary. So, this conclusion is incorrect.

So, none of the conclusions is correct.

Q.80. What is the value of ‘X’ in the sequence 2, 7, 22, 67, 202, X, 1822?

(a) 603
(b) 605
(c) 607
(d) 608

Ans. (c)

Solution:

The given sequence is 2, 7, 22, 67, 202, X, 1822

The pattern being followed here is given below:

2 × 3 + 1 = 7
7 × 3 + 1 = 22
22 × 3 + 1 = 67
67 × 3 + 1 = 202
202 × 3 + 1 = 607
607 × 3 + 1 = 1822

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